Wholefoods Market, Do They Practice What They Preach?

Whole Foods Market, Do they practice what they preach? Festus Acha, Jaesang Kim, Wanda Moss, Linda Pressley, Alioune Thiam The Johns Hopkins Carey Business School Management & Organizational Behavior Professor Rick Milter March 22, 2010 Whole Foods Market, Do they practice what they preach? Abstract The purpose of this paper is to show a correlation between what is perceived about Whole Foods Market and what is factual about them. We intend to explore and investigate the following key points such as their mission statement, vision, their strategy for success, and empowerment techniques. We will look at how they motivate, compete with others, and the type of inspiration used as a whole to promote cohesiveness throughout their business. We want to feel out their communication techniques as well as the emotional intelligence of their employees. It will be an experience to observe their team leadership in action rather than by hearsay. Coaching and mentoring has to be an important function for such a global organization as well as the steps taken for decision making and problem solving. We have come to realize that change is inevitable in any business and we want to know what their plans for change are and how it will be dealt with. Lastly we take our information collectively and see just how Whole Foods holds up through our audit of their leadership. Our leadership audit of Whole Foods Market, Inc. (WFMI) was based on the following criteria: Mission & Vision Statement (Core Values) Strategy for Success Empowering Employees Motivation & Inspiration Competing without fear Communication Emotional Intelligence Team Leadership Effectiveness Coaching & Mentoring Problem solving & decision making Organizational Change Overall Management We graded them on a sliding scale of Excellence to Needs Improvement and based on the financial data and management of their competitors such as Kroger’s, Safeway, and Trader Joe’s their score was given based on overall performance in those areas. Their biggest competitor being Trader Joe’s being a privately held company it was difficult to obtain financial information to do an effective comparison. Whole Foods Market has a running history of being a family oriented company. It is also reported that upper management uses a hands off practice of allowing its employees complete autonomy in decision making regarding the operation of their stores. Based on primary information obtained through observations and interviews at multiple Whole Foods Markets throughout the Maryland area we are able to shed some validity to some of the theories currently circulating. We also have information that may show or allude to controversial information as well. During these interviews we talked with employees and the managers on duty. What we learned is what people say and what you see may not always be the same. Our secondary information was obtained through reports found through second party interviews, up to date journals and magazines such as Harvard Business Review. Vision & Mission (Core Values) Whole Foods Market came into existence on September 12, 1980. Workers for Whole Foods Market experience this organization as a positive paternalistic organization. It is characterized by very high trust levels, complete autonomy and accompanied by very little uncertainty. Their vision statement speaks of their objectives and goals reaching beyond a food retailer. It highlights its customer satisfaction, healthy employee environment, profits, investments and stockholders always ending on a positive note. Their mission is to lead by example. Some of their core values are things such as: Ensuring they are selling the best quality all natural and or organic products available for resale. Making sure their customers are always satisfied Support team members Invest in the community and the environment Great relationships with our suppliers and business partners Whole Foods truly believes in creating wealth through profits and growth for the company and its employees. However, on March 17, 2010 one of our team members Wanda Moss visited the Whole Foods Market located at 1001 Fleet Street, Baltimore, Maryland 21202. Her visit revealed that workers were friendly, outgoing, and very accommodating as she sought out a particular herbal seasoning to use in a seafood casserole. Her curiosity and interest in their herbs and spices made G. Singh, an employee more relaxed as she divulged her interest in their company for a school project. Ms. Singh has been working for the company for a little over four years she revealed. When questioned about the mission of Whole Foods as it pertained to her store and she replied that they are very good to her and they act as family towards one another. The employee was asked one other question in regards to the company’s position on unionized labor and she replied no one that she knows in her store wants to be in a union and that they like things just fine. Wanda Moss said she felt a defensive spirit as â€Å"G† responded. Nonetheless Ms. Moss continued to check out with her items and thanked the young lady for her time. Whole Food Markets employees are very knowledgeable about the store and its practices almost as if one has to rehearse. We have surmised either these employees are well prepared for inquisitions or the vision or mission statement of Whole Foods is genuine being practiced. We rated them good in their ability to mirror their vision and mission statement. Strategy for Success Which leads us to what is their marketing strategy to remain successful and move forward? Information obtained from their website suggests that they rigorously will be vigilante assessing their current situations in all aspects of the business in which they operate and examine as to how they can stay the front runner. Part of that plan is to expand geographically in the future and give consideration to altering their product mix to attract more main stream customers. Since they are not really clear on their plan of execution for expansion and innovation in altering their current mix, we rated them average and the need for improvement. Empowerment Their strategy will lead us to how they intend or are currently empowering their employees and low level managers to remain on the frontline for the business. What was learned is that their empowerment techniques equate to trust all day long. For instance the employees believe that with management placing an immeasurable amount of faith in them, a high value is placed upon them. That same value is transferred to the customers and other stakeholders that help them to remain profitable and a front runner in their field. Their CEO John Mackey is walking the talk by nurturing from the inside out to enhance the quality of benefits distributed in all of their stores. The empowerment of their employees and or team leaders is unique and inspiring so we rated them excellent in this category. Inspiration Whole Food Market was created by local business people who had the conviction that the natural food industry was ready for bigger stores. They decided to opt for the supermarket format that was hosted by only â€Å"half a dozen† stores providing natural food in the United States. In terms of nutrition, Whole Food Market claims to always look for the â€Å"highest quality, least processed, most flavorful and natural food possible†. They believe that their products are the purest within the US and that everything that you can pick up at the store will be healthy. The company also buys from local growers in order to support them and reduce their â€Å"carbon footprint†. That way, Whole Food Market is then really â€Å"committed to helping take care of the world around [them]† and the â€Å"support of organic farming and sustainable agriculture helps protect our planet†. The company also supports food banks and all sorts of micro lending operations in order to leave something positive to the community. Whole Food Market also believes that its employees make the company. They select them carefully, making sure that their values and the Whole Food market’s values are in sync. The company is trying to create a workplace where employees are pushed to improve and feel respected as well. Motivation Several factors have to be taken into account when assessing the origin of employees’ motivation. One important factor that motivates employees is that Whole Food Market support â€Å"advancement from within†. In other words, they promote their current employees to apply for the higher responsibilities positions. According to Whole Food Market, once an employee has gained valuable knowledge, he may qualify to apply for any available opportunity in the Whole Food stores and facilities. Whole food makes a point to post all the openings for positions â€Å"at team leader level or higher† only in their internal job site. It prevents outsider to access high level responsibilities positions as well as it promotes current employee to expand their product knowledge, develop their skills, enhance their value to the team, and advance inside the company. Another important factor that keeps the employees motivated is the benefit packages provided to them. Fortune Magazine recognized Whole Food Market to be one of the â€Å"100 best companies to work for during the last 13 years†. In 2009, Whole Food Market was part of the only 15 companies that would provide 100% coverage on their employees’ health insurance premiums. Their benefit packages include â€Å"health insurance, paid time off, retirement savings and generous store discounts. The company also claims to be unique in the way it allocates benefit packages. Indeed, since every team member is important to the companies, they all get a voice when it comes to the content of their benefit packages. Team members will vote every three years to determine the content of the benefit packages offered by the company. This system results in different benefit packages according to the country or region employees are working in. The Paid- Time –Off policy, for example, is different depending on where the employee is working. For US employees, the paid time off depends on whether the employee is working full-time or part-time. In Canada paid-time-off depends on the time spent within the company in years, and In the UK, every single employee gets 7 days and the possibility to add an extra day. The last factor (but not least) that we discovered to be pushing employees is the learning experience and the experience itself. Alioune Thiam, one of our team members interviewed a couple of employees at different positions. When they were asked the question † what motivates you† one of them spontaneously answered that the learning experience was her principal source of motivation when the other stated that he just love the company and what the company does for the environment. Competition Based on the multiple interviews held with the store managers, Whole Food Market does not consider other giants of the food industry as threatening competitors. They acknowledge that other stores also carry organic food but they are convinced that the high quality standard set is not rivaled. Employees also mentioned shopping at Whole Food Market as an experience where the customer and the team members are educated. They emphasized a lot about the learning experience that makes them unique and out of reach for other grocery stores. However, according to Hoovers, a business analysis company, Whole Food Market still has dangerous competitors. A business analysis of the Whole Food market shows us that The Kroger is the most important competitors to Whole Food Market closely followed by Safeway and Trader Jo’s. Even though these stores do not provide only natural, organic, healthy food, they do offer a wide variety of food ranging from organic/natural to less healthy and more commonly found nutrition. Communication Communication is essential in any organization and it would appear that Whole Foods has communication as one of its top priorities. There is great communication among team members as well as the different teams in each store. I visited the Whole Foods store in Mt. Washington and spoke with Joe Young, Associate Customer Service Team Leader regarding how communication. Mr. Young stated that the employees feel that the communication is very transparent, from team leadership to team members. Any communication from the corporate office in Texas is given to the regional offices. Information is then given to the stores and is disseminated to the team leaders who, in turn, give it to the team members. I asked about feedback from customers. Mr. Young stated that feedback from customers is encouraged. Whenever feedback is received from a customer, it is given to the team leader for whichever section it concerns. The question along with the answer is posted on a bulletin board for customers to see. This feedback response is usually given within a week. However, some of the research that I have found indicates that team members are not allowed to say anything about working at Whole Foods on social websites, such as Facebook. According to some blogs, John Mackey uses pseudo names to become â€Å"friends† with some of his employees on Facebook to keep a tab on what is being said about the company. These employees face repercussions from posting on the website. Communication Grade – Good. There seems to be good multi-directional with team leaders and customers. However, employees should be able to express themselves constructively through social websites and not feel they will be penalized. Emotional Intelligence Emotional intelligence is defined as an ability to recognize the meanings of emotion and their relationships and to reason and problem-solve on the basis of them. The employees I interview seemed to really enjoy working for Whole Foods. According to Fortune 500 Magazine, Whole Foods is listed as one of the best places to work and has been for the past 10 years. When I visited the Mt. Washington store, the atmosphere had a relaxed feel. People seemed to enjoy shopping there and the employees were attuned to the customer needs. While I was speaking with Mr. Young, he greeted several customers by name. Mr. Young pointed out the core values of Whole Foods which are listed on huge individual placards in the store. The quality standards were also listed individually on placards. As I stood in line to purchase my items, the cashiers had a great attitude. They also knew customers by name, commented on their purchases – one cashier spoke about the dinner and dessert from purchases of a customer. I also interview a long-time customer of the store. She stated she could not find anything to say negatively. She recently moved for New Orleans and shopped at those stores as well as the store at Mt. Washington, Maryland. She felt the employees enjoyed working at Whole Foods and would stop whatever they were doing to help customers, even if it meant walking over the whole store to help them find products. She felt that the service and atmosphere of Whole Foods makes customers feel good about what they are buying there. In her opinion, the team members take pride in the products that they sell. Emotional Intelligence Grade – Excellent Team Leadership & Effectiveness In the textbook The Future of Management, author Gary Hamel describe the type of management of Whole Foods. Each store is considered a team and inside the each store, there are departmental teams. According to my research, this concept seems to work. Leadership decisions are made from the bottom up instead of from the top down, which is the industry norm. Each departmental team has team leaders. It is very intriguing the way team leadership is chosen. The leader of each team is interviewed by a panel. The panel includes Regional Vice Presidents, various Team Leaders either from the same store or another store in the region, as well as a cross of team members. Mr. Young also said there is no â€Å"seniority† when choosing a leader. Leaders are chosen by the panel if they exhibit the ability to lead a team and not by how many years they have been with the company. Mr. Young also stated that when decisions affecting their team members need to be made, all team members are allowed to vote on the changes. For example, when it comes time to choose health care, the team members all vote for their health benefits. Team Leadership Grade – Excellent Coaching & Mentoring Decision Making The Whole Foods culture is built on decentralized teamwork. Decisions in Whole Foods are not made by upper management but each store has been empowered to make its decisions independent of the other. Critical decisions, such as whom to hire is made by those who will be directly impacted by the consequences of such decisions. Decision making in Whole Foods is made by teams. Each department and its team are responsible for all key operating decisions, including pricing, ordering, staffing, and in-store promotion. With regards to product selection, team leaders are given the authority to stock products they feel appeal to customers. Stores are encouraged to buy locally as long as the items meet the stringent standards of Whole Foods. With this empowerment given to teams comes accountability, which ensures that associates use their discretionary decision-making power in ways that drive the business forward. Part of Whole Foods’ strategy is to put decision right down to the front lines and hence teams make many important decisions. Problem Solving Teams maintain a culture in which open dialogue and debate is the norm. This is reinforced by openly addressing behavior that involves excessive criticism or cynicism. Not tolerating such behavior sends a strong signal to the team and sets behavior patterns. Team processes have a profound influence on team effectiveness. Effective processes ensure rigorous and optimal decision-making; generate buy-in from team members, balance the influence each member exerts on the group and minimize interpersonal conflicts while encourage constructive debate. Information and ideas of each team member is properly incorporated into the decision making process. Whole Foods has multiple processes built into its teams to achieve optimal team functioning. The tight linkage between business intelligence and decision-making authority at Whole Foods ensures that little problems do not have to compound into big problems before action is taken. Organizational Change Whole Foods Market started with a small single store. In 1978, twenty-five year old college dropout John Mackey and twenty-one year old Rene Lawson Hardy opened a small natural foods store, Safer Way, in Austin, in Texas. Two years later, John and Rene merged Safer Way with Clarksville Natural Grocery and then they opened the original Whole Foods market in 1800. Even though Whole foods Market focused on natural foods, it tried to change structure and management to improve its performance. In 1986, it was first time to purchase an existing store, when Whole foods bought the Bluebonnet Natural Foods Grocery in Dallas and converted it into a Whole Foods Market. After that, Whole Foods not only open new stores but also purchased their competitors in new regions. Through the expansion program, Whole Food Market reached out to potential customers. Whole Foods Markets launched a private label called Whole Foods. Whole Foods Market tried to find smaller manufacturers who produced quality organic products. The private label encouraged customers to return to Whole Foods Market. Its own Whole Foods brand became the first retailer to maintain a private label line featuring organic food products. In 1996, in order to resemble other Whole foods store, Whole Food Market started to transform the Mrs. Gooch's stores and made them adopt the Whole Foods Market name. The change in name caused a 5 to 10 percent sales drop. After that, Whole Foods was more careful about changing the names of acquired stores. To improve productivity, Whole Foods established a centralized purchasing system. By the end of 1997, the system facilitated the company to track product movement and prices. In addition, Whole Foods made a low priced private label, 365. The 365 products were different from the Whole Foods products. The 365 products did not provide organic products, but they were priced about 20 percent cheaper. The 365 products attracted more customers who typically bought groceries. Moreover, Whole Foods Market has expanded into global market. In 2002, Whole Foods Market expanded into Canada and two year later it entered the United Kingdom. In 2010, Whole Foods employs 53,300people in more than 290 stores in the U. S. , Canada, and the UK. The tenth-largest food and drug store in the U. S. , Whole Foods ranks 324th on the Fortune 500 list, with annual sales of approximately $8 billion. Whole Foods Market has high standards and provides organic and quality foods. In 2003, Whole Foods Market was designated America's first National Certified Organic Grocer. Three years earlier, Whole Foods was the first national food retailer to join the USDA advisory board to help increase the U. S. Organic Standards. In 2008, Whole Foods established stricter guidelines to reduce environmental impact and to require vendors to pass a third-party audit. Over the past decade, Whole Foods Market is increasing its reputation with organic, fair-trade, or locally produced food. Even though Whole Foods Market is a huge food store, it is going to change and to pursue what people need. Over the next decade, Whole Foods will offer more resources to emphasize healthful eating. If Whole Foods Market stops changing, it cannot survive in the food industry. Overall Management Whole Foods Market believes that customer experiences anticipate and predict its business outcomes. Whole Foods Market also knows employee performance has influence on customer experiences. Therefore, Whole Foods Market tries to satisfy its employees by offering adequate compensation program, safe and friendly work environment. These facts are able to motivate and guide employees to increase productivity and effectiveness. Whole Foods Market also makes employees feel like a part of the company. So every employee takes an important role to achieve its goals and their performances affect directly to the company’s outputs. Especially, Whole Foods Market is a workplace to respect for all individual team members and self-empowerment. At Whole Foods Market, there are five values to affect the employees’ performance outcomes. First, Whole Foods Market believes one of the most important jobs is talking to team members. Whole Foods Market knows what its team leaders say and do affect their team members. If team members cannot trust the leader, they also do not trust the mission of the company. Each leader represents their teams. Whole Foods Market knows communication is very important. So each leader attempts to share the mission and core values of Whole Foods Market. Also, Whole Foods Market emphasizes a self-directed team structure. It organizes Whole Foods store and company into a variety of teams. In small team organizational structure, every member is vital and important. The contributions of every member make the success of the team. Whole Foods think self-directed teams are the key work unit of the company. So Whole Food pays more attention to each team. To discuss issues, solve problems and appreciate each others' contributions, each team meets regularly. Whole Foods Market insists empowerment enhances the effectiveness of teams. When each team is fully empowered to do their work and to fulfill the organization’s mission and values, empowered organizations have great advantage. Empowerment improves creativity and innovation. Whole Foods support individual team members. Next, Whole Foods Market attempts to optimize transparency to all team members because an important element of trust is transparency. Whole Foods Market allows every team member to access information that affects their jobs and annual individual compensation report. When a company decides to hide some information, the motivation is a lack of trust. Whole Foods is afraid that the information that would cause more harm than good if it was known. However, Whole Foods is willing to take the risk. Without transparency, Whole Foods cannot reach out to high level of organizational trust. Finally, Whole Foods is not able to create high trust organizations without love and care. We are more likely to look for love and friendship with our families and friends, but not from our work. If the leadership expresses love and care in their actions, then love and care will flourish in the organization. For example, everyone participates in the meeting and gives the opportunity to voluntarily appreciate other members in the group for services. Appreciating team members helps encourage every team member. They want to get involved in their teams and trust each member. As a result, in 2010, Whole Foods ranked 18th on Fortune’s list of the â€Å"100 Best Companies to Work For. Appendix Table of opportunities: Table of opportunities: Competitors list: Leadership Audit References Diamond, D. (2009, October 1). Perception Vs. Reality. Progressive Grocer, 88(7), 34. Hamstra, M. (2010, January 1). Mackey No Longer Chairman? Supermarket News, 58(1), 1-7. Hoovers Company Records, 10952. Dow Jones Financial Data on Whole Foods Market. Retrieved March 25, 2010, from http:/ /finance. yahoo. com/q? s=WFMI. Linda Pressley. Whole Foods Market. Mr. Joe Young, Associate Customer Service Team Leader, Whole Foods Store, Mt. Washington, Maryland. Interviewed on March 23, 2010 Ms. Fay Day, Whole Foods Customer. Interview March 24, 2010. Paskin, J. (2009, February 1). Growth slows, but mackey doesn't [Keeping employees motivated]. 18, 2, 24-26. Pressley, L. Whole Foods Market Interview. Retrieved from www. discoveryhealth. com. Whole Foods Market. Retrieved from www. wholefoodsmarket. com. http://www. hoovers. com/company/Whole_Foods_Market_Inc/ http://www. hoovers. com/about/100000489-1. html www. marketwatch. com/ http://www. wikinvest. com/stock/Whole_Foods_Market_%28WFMI%29

Marginal Revenue and Profit

?In order for a company to be able to reach its full potential financial management must be in place. This management needs to be aware of at least the basics of financial plans which are revenue, cost and profit. These three things can make or break a company. Each of these things must be understood and considered before plans can be laid to create or better a company. Revenue is the amount a company receives (Marginal Revenue, 2009). If a company is in the business of sales, revenue is the amount of money the company receives per unit sold. Marginal revenue is the amount of money a company receives for the last unit sold. This is found by dividing the change in revenue by the change in quantity sold. For companies that compete with one another marginal revenue is not very important. This is because in a competitive environment most products are sold at a set price so that marginal revenue is equal to the set sales price of the product. For a monopoly on the other hand, marginal revenue is very important. Monopolies have a decreasing marginal revenue curve (marginal Revenue, 2009); for a monopoly the marginal revenue is less than the sales price. This is because a monopoly must have a lower sales price in order to increase the amount of product sold. Total cost is the amount of money it costs to operate at a particular rate of production (Baker, 2000). There are two types of cost: variable and fixed. Fixed costs are those that remain the same regardless of production and variable costs are those that change with production. Marginal cost is the addition either to total cost or total variable cost resulting from one more unit of output (McConnall & Brue, 2008). Usually this is found by dividing the change in total cost by the change in quantity. Profit is the positive gain from an investment or business operation after subtracting expenses (Profit, 2009). Profit maximization is the idea that people will try to create as high a profit as possible given the circumstances. Since marginal revenue is the amount of revenue an additional unit will bring in and marginal cost is the amount the additional unit will cost to produce, then profit maximization is the point where marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal (Profit Maximization, 2009). So as long as marginal cost is lower than marginal revenue there is profit, but if marginal cost ever exceeds marginal revenue the last unit should not be produced. If the marginal revenue is higher than the marginal cost, the company can produce more units. Business owners and managers need to be able to make a profit. Whenever people think of profit, they are aware that profit is the amount of money left after the expenses are paid and most people know the greater the profit the better off they will be. Most people do not know that profit maximization requires the knowledge of marginal cost and marginal revenue. In order to determine when a company is no longer profiting from production of extra units, one must know that profit maximization is the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. Refernces (2009). Marginal revenue: Fundamental finance. Retrieved July 16, 2009, from fundamentalfinance. com Web site: http://economics. fundamentalfinance. com/micro_revenue. php Baker, S. (2000). Cost concepts. Retrieved July 16, 2009, from Economics interactive tutorial Web site: http://hspm. sph. sc. edu/COURSES/ECON/Cost/Cost. html (2009). Profit. Retrieved July 16, 2009, from investorwords. com Web site: http://www. investorwords. com/3880/profit. html Profit Maximization. Retrieved July 16, 2009, Web site: http://www. econ. ilstu. edu/ntskaggs/eco105/readings/profit-max. htm McConnell, C. , & Brue, S. (2008). Microeconomics 17th ed. New York: McGraw-Hill Irwin.

Upsee 2009

UPSEE – 2009 Full Paper Section-1 Physics 1. If 3. 8 ? 10-6 is added to 4. 2 ? 10-5 giving due regard to significant figures, then the result will be : 1) 4. 58 ? 10-5 2) 4. 6 ? 10-5 3) 4. 5 ? 10-5 4) None of these 2. A ball is dropped from a bridge at a height of 176. 4 m over a river. After 2 s, a second ball is thrown straight downwards. What should be the initial velocity of the second ball so that both hit the water simultaneously ? 1) 2. 45 ms-1 2) 49 ms-1 3) 14. 5 ms-1 4) 24. 5 ms-1 3. Which of the following are true ? 1. A body having constant speed can have varying velocity. . Position time graphs for two objects with zero relative velocity are parallel. 3. The numerical ratio of velocity to speed of an object can never be more than one. 1) 1 only 2) 2 and 3 3) All 4) None of these 4. The centripetal acceleration of a body moving in a circle of radius 100 m with a time period of 2 s will be 1) 98. 5 ms-2 2) 198. 5 ms-2 3) 49. 29 ms-2 4) 985. 9 ms-2 5. How many NAND ga tes are used in an OR gate? 1) Four 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five 1/39 eng. edooni. com 6. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms-1.To give an initial upward acceleration of 20 ms-2, the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be (g = 10 ms-2) 1) 127. 5 kg s-1 2) 187. 5 kg s-1 3) 185. 5 kg s-1 4) 137. 5 kg s-1 7. Induction furnace is based on the heating effect of 1) electric field 2) eddy current 3) magnetic field 4) gravitational field 8. A 5. 0 ? F capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 800 V and discharged through a conductor. The energy given to the conductor during the discharge is 1) 1. 6 ? 10-2 J 2) 3. 2 J 3) 1. 6 J 4) 4. 2 J 9.If the electric field is given by (5i + 4j + 9 ), the electric flux through a surface of area 20 unit lying in the Y-Z plane will be 1) 100 unit 2) 80 unit 3) 180 unit 4) 20 unit 10. An aluminium (Al) rod with area of cross-section 4 ? 10-6 m 2 has a current of 5 A flowing through it. Fi nd the drift velocity of electron in the rod. Density of Al = 2. 7 ? 103 kgm -3 and atomic wt. = 27 u. Assume that each Al atom provides one electron. 1) 8. 6 ? 10-4 ms-1 2) 1. 3 ? 10-4 ms-1 3) 2. 8 ? 10-2 ms-1 4) 3. 8 ? 10-3 ms-1 11. Taking the internal resistance of the battery as negligible, the steady state current in the 2? esistor shown in the figure will be 2/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 1. 8 A 2) 2. 9 A 3) 0. 9 A 4) 2. 8 A 12. Which statement is true ? 1. Kirchhoff's law is equally applicable to both AC and DC. 2. Semiconductors have a positive temperature coefficient of resistance. 3. Meter bridge is greater sensitive when the resistance of all the four arms of the bridge are of the same order. 4. The emf of a cell depends upon the size and area of electordes. 1) 1 and 4 2) 2 and 4 3) 3 and 4 4) None of these 13. Six resistors, each of value 3 are connected as shown in the figure. A cell of emf 3 V is ? onnected across AB. The effective resistance across AB and the current throug h the arm AB will be 1) 0. 6 ? , 1 A 2) 1. 5 ? , 2 A 3) 0. 6 ? , 2 A 4) 1. 5 ? , 1 A 3/39 eng. edooni. com 14. If t1 and t2 are the times taken by two different coils for producing same heat with same supply, then the time taken by them to produce the same heat when connected in parallel will be 1) t1t2/(t1 + t2) 2) t1 + t2 3) t1t2 4) (t1 + t2)/t1t2 15. In a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as shown in figure. The output signal across RL will be 1) 2) 3) 4) 16.Neutrino emission in ? -decay was predicted theoretically by 1) Planck 2) Heisenberg 3) Laue 4) Pauli 17. A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths 0. 3 m and 3 cm respectively. It is focused on moon which subtends on angle of 0. 5 ° at the objective. Then, the angle subtended at the eye by the final image will be 1) 5 ° 2) 0. 25 ° 3) 0. 5 ° 4) 0. 35 ° 18. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence a nd the latter is equal to (3/4) the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is 1) 25 ° 2) 30 ° /39 3) 45 ° 4) 35 ° eng. edooni. com 1) 25 ° 2) 30 ° 3) 45 ° 4) 35 ° 19. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the first minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is 1) zero 2) ? 3) ? /2 4) 2 ? 20. A wire of length 2 m carrying a current of 1 A is bent to form a circle, the magnetic moment of the coil is 1) 2? Am 2 2) (1/? ) Am 2 3) ? Am 2 4) (2/? ) Am 2 21.Which of the following particles will describe the smallest circle when projected with the same velocity perpendicular to the magnetic field ? 1) Electron 2) Proton 3) ? -particle 4) Deuteron 22. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond curie temperature, the n it will show 1) paramagnetism 2) diamagnetism 3) anti-ferromagnetism 4) no magnetic property 23. A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rads-1 in a plane at right angles to an external field of magnetic induction 0. 5 Wbm -2. The emf induced between the centre and a point on the rim will be 1) 3 V 2) 1. 5 V 3) 6 V 4) 9 V 24. Which of the following is NOT an illustration of Newton's third law ? 1) Flight of a jet plane 2) A cricket player lowering his hands while catching a cricket ball 3) Walking on floor 4) Rebounding of a rubber ball 5/39 eng. edooni. com 25. Four blocks of same mass connected by cords are pulled by a force F on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in figure. The tensions T 1, T 2 and T 3 will be F 27. Which of the following statements is wrong ? ) KE of a body is independent of the direction of motion 2) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is conserved 3) If two protons are brought tow ards each other, the PE of the system decreases 4) A body can not have energy without momentum 28. A car is moving along a circular path of radius 500 m with a speed of 30 ms-1. If at some instant, its speed increases at the rate of 2 ms-2, then at that instant the magnitude of resultant acceleration will be 1) 4. 7 ms-2 2) 3. 8 ms-2 3) 3 ms-2 4) 2. 7 ms-2 29. A constant power P is applied to a car starting from rest.If v is the velocity of the car at time t, then 1) v 2) v 3) v 4) v t (1/t) vt 1/vt 30. The effect of rotation of the earth on the value of acceleration due to gravity is 1) g is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles 2) g is minimum at the equator and maximum at the poles 3) g is maximum at both places 4) g is minimum at both places 31. A heat engine is a device 6/39 eng. edooni. com 1) which converts mechanical energy into heat energy 2) which converts heat energy into mechanical energy 3) absorbs heat from a sink at a lower temperature and rejects to the sou rce at high temperature 4) None of the above 32.The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is 1) v3 : v5 2) v12 : v3 3) 1 : v3 4) v5 : v6 33. Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 4 kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected by a spring. If the heavier mass is given a velocity of 14 ms-1 in the direction of lighter one, then the velocity gained by the centre of mass will be 1) 7. 4 ms-1 2) 14 ms-1 3) 8. 4 ms-1 4) 10 ms-1 34.Two identical pendulums are oscillating with amplitudes 4 cm and 8 cm. The ratio of their energies of oscillation will be 1) 1/3 2) 1/4 3) 1/9 4) 1/2 35. Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is n. If the length and diameter of the wire are doubled keeping the tension same, then the new fundamental frequency is 1) 2n/v2 2) n/2v2 3) v2n 4) n/4 36. Which of the following p-V diagrams best represents an isother mal process ? 1) 7/39 eng. edooni. com 2) 3) 4) 37. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker.If the whole system falls under gravity, then the upthrust on the body due to liquid is 1) equal to the weight of the body in air 2) equal to the weight of the body in liquid 3) zero 4) equal to the weight of the immersed part of the body 38. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a high wall at a speed of 20 ms-1. If the speed of sound is 340 ms-1, the frequency of the reflected sound heard by the girl sitting in the car will be closest to 1) 540 Hz 2) 524 Hz 3) 568 Hz 4) 480 Hz 39. A block A of mass 100 kg rests on another block B of mass 200 kg and is tied to a wall as shown in the figure.The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0. 2 and that between B and the ground is 0. 3. The minimum force F required to move the block B is (g = 10 ms-2) 8/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 900 N 2) 200 N 3) 1100 N 4) 700 N 40. A body takes n times as much time to slide down a 45 ° rough in cline as it takes to slide down a smooth 45 ° incline. The coefficient of friction is 1) 1 – (1/n2) 2) 1/(1 – n2) 3) v(1 – (1/n2)) 4) 1/v(1 – n2) 41. A force of (5 + 3x) N acting on a body of mass 20 kg along the x-axis displaces it from x = 2 m to x = 6 m. The work done by the force is 1) 20 J 2) 48 J 3) 68 J 4) 86 J 42.A rock of mass m is dropped to the ground from a height h. A second rock with mass 2 m is dropped from the same height. When second rock strikes the ground, what is its kinetic energy ? 1) Twice that of the first rock 2) Four times that of the first rock 3) The same as that of the first rock 4) Half that of the first rock 43. The escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms-1. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and same mean density as that of earth is 1) 5. 5 kms-1 2) 11 kms-1 3) 22 kms-1 4) None of these 44. If one mole of a monoatomic gas (? (5/3)) is mixed with one mole of a diatomic gas ( = ? 9/39 eng. edooni. co m 44. If one mole of a monoatomic gas (? = (5/3)) is mixed with one mole of a diatomic gas ( = ? (7/5)), the value of ? for the mixture is 1) 1. 40 2) 1. 50 3) 1. 53 4) 3. 07 45. Two rods of the same length and diameter having thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are joined in parallel. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the combination is 1) K1K2/(K1 + K2) 2) K1 + K2 3) (K1 + K2)/2 4) vK1K2 46. A body initially at 80 °C cools to 64 °C in 5 min and to 52 °C in 10 min. The temperature of the surrounding is 1) 26 °C 2) 16 °C 3) 36 °C 4) 40 °C 47.A cylindrical tube open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of air column is now 1) f/2 2) f 3) 3f/4 4) 2f 48. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle ?. It is found that a ray incident on one mirror at any angle is rendered parallel to itself after reflection from both the mirrors. The value of ? is 1) 30 ° 2) 60  ° 3) 90 ° 4) 120 ° 49. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air 1) its wavelength decreases 2) its wavelength increases 3) its frequency increases 4) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes 50.Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for 1) red colour 2) green colour 10/39 eng. edooni. com 3) yellow colour 4) violet colour 51. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab of refractive index 1. 62. If the reflected ray and the refracted ray are mutually perpendicular, the angle of incidence is 1) tan-1(1. 62) 2) tan-1(1/1. 62) 3) tan-1(1. 33) 4) tan-1(1/1. 33) 52. An object A has a charge of ? C and the object B has a charge of ? C. 6 Which + 2 + statements is true ? 1) F AB = -3F BA 2) F AB = -F BA 3) 3F AB = -F BA 4) F AB = 4F BA 53.The equivalent capacitance between A and B for the combination of capacitors shown in figure, where all capacitances are in microfarad is 1) 6. 0 ? F 2) 4. 0 ? F 3) 2. 0 ? F 4) 3. 0 ? F 54. Two charged p articles are projected into a region in which a magnetic field is perpendicular to their velocities. After they enter the magnetic field, you can conclude that 1) the charges are deflected in opposite directions 2) the charges continue to move in a straight line 3) the charges move in circular paths 4) the charges move in circular paths but in opposite directions 11/39 eng. edooni. com 55.A solenoid consists of 100 turns of wire and has a length of 10. 0 cm. The magnetic field inside the solenoid when it carries a current of 0. 500 A will be 1) 6. 28 ? 10-4 T 2) 6. 28 ? 10-5 T 3) 3. 14 ? 10-4 T 4) None of these 56. An AC voltage source has an output of ? V = (200 V) sin 2? ft. This source is connected to a 100 ? resistor. RMS current in the resistance is 1) 1. 41 A 2) 2. 41 A 3) 3. 41 A 4) 0. 71 A 57. A generator at a utility company produces 100 A of current at 4000 V. The voltage is stepped up to 240000 V by a transformer before it is sent on a high voltage transmission line.The c urrent in transmission line is 1) 3. 67 A 2) 2. 67 A 3) 1. 67 A 4) 2. 40 A 58. The energy of a photon of wavelength ? is 1) hc? 2) hc/? 3) ? /hc 4) h? /c 59. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to 1) infinite energy 2) maximum energy 3) minimum energy 4) zero energy 60. Consider ? -particles, ? -particles and? -rays, each having an energy of 0. 5 MeV. In increasing order of penetrating powers, the radiations are 1) ? , ? , ? 2) ? , ? , ? 3) ? , ? , ? 4) ? , ? , ? 12/39 eng. edooni. com 61. The figure shows the symbol of a 1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NOT gate 4) NAND gate 62.In ? + decay process, the following changes take place inside the nucleus 1) 2) 3) 4) 63. In a transistor the base is 1) an insulator 2) a conductor of low resistance 3) a conductor of high resistance 4) an extrinsic semiconductor 64. A particle moves along a straight line such that its position x at any time t is x = 6t2 – t3. Where x is in metre and t is in second, then 1) at t = 0 acceleration is 12 ms-2 2) x – t curve has maximum at 4 s 3) Both (1) and (2) are wrong 4) Both (1) and (2) are correct 65. A particle is subjected simultaneously to two SHM's, one along the x-axis and the other along the y-axis.The two vibrations are in phase and have unequal amplitudes. The particle will execute 1) straight line motion 2) circular motion 3) elliptic motion 4) parabolic motion 66. X-rays are diffracted from a crystal of lattice plane spacing 2A. The maximum wavelength that can be diffracted is 13/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 1 A 2) 2 A 3) 2. 5 A 4) 4 A 67. If ? and ? are the collector emitter short circuit current amplification factor and collector base short circuit current amplification factor respectively of a transistor, then ? is equal to 1) (1 + ? )/? 2) ? /(1 – ? ) 3) (1 – ? )/? 4) ? (1 + ? ) 68. The resistance of a straight conductor does not depend on its 1) length 2) temperature 3) material 4) shape of cross-section 69. In a given network, each resistance has value of 6?. The point X is connected to point A by a copper wire of negligible resistance and point Y is connected to point B by the same wire. The effective resistance between X and Y will be 1) 18 ? 2) 6 ? 3) 3 ? 4) 2 ? 70. A length of wire carries a steady current. It is bent first to form a circular coil of one turn. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius.The magnetic field at the centre caused by the same current is 1) double of its first value 2) quarter of its first value 3) four times of its first value 4) same as the first value 71. The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle of radius r with a charge Q placed at the centre will be 1) Qq/(4? ? 0r2) 2) Qq/(4? ? 0r) 3) zero 14/39 eng. edooni. com 4) Qq2/(4? ? 0r) 72. Two wires of same material and radius have their lengths in ratio 1 : 2. If these wires are stretched by the same force, the strain produced in the two wires will be in the rati o 1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4 73.A student has measured the length of a wire equal to 0. 04580 m. This value of length has the number of significant figures equal to 1) five 2) four 3) six 4) None of these 74. The volume of an ideal diatomic gas is doubled isothermally. The internal energy 1) is doubled 2) is halved 3) is increases four times 4) is remains unchanged 75. A small power station supplies electricity to 5000 lamps connected in parallel. Each lamp has a resistance of 220 and is operated at 220 V. The total current supplied by the ? station is 1) 2500 A 2) 3500 A 3) 5000 A 4) 10000 A Section-2 Chemistry 76.Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct ? 1) n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s = +(1/2) 2) n = 3, l = 3, m = +3, s = +(1/2) 3) n = 6, l = 0, m = +1, s = -(1/2) 4) n = 4, l = 2, m = +2, s = 0 77. Which of the following is not a colligative property ? 1) Optical activity 2) Osmotic pressure 3) Depression of freezing point 15/39 eng. edooni. com 4) Elevation of boiling point 78. Which of the following when dissolved in water forms a solution, ie, non-conducting ? 1) Chile salt petre 2) Potash alum 3) Green vitriol 4) Ethyl alcohol 79.The best way to prevent rusting of iron is 1) making it cathode 2) putting in saline water 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of the above 80. In NaCl crystal each Cl- ion is surrounded by 1) 4 Na+ ions 2) 6 Na+ ions 3) 1 Na+ ion 4) 2 Na+ ions 81. Stainless steel has iron and 1) Cr 2) Cu 3) Co 4) Zn 82. Naphthalene can be easily purified by 1) sublimation 2) crystallisation 3) distillation 4) vaporisation 83. When acetylene is passed through dil H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4, the compound formed is 1) ether 2) acetaldehyde 3) acetic acid 4) ketone 84.Cross aldol condensation occurs between 1) two same aldehydes 2) two same ketones 3) two different aldehydes and ketones 4) None of the above 16/39 eng. edooni. com 85. Which is more powerful to coagulate the negative colloid ? 1) ZnSO4 2) Na3PO4 3) AlCl3 4) K4[Fe(CN)6] 86. Cannizaro reaction is performed by 1) formaldehyde 2) formaldehyde and acetaldehyde 3) benzaldehyde 4) formaldehyde and benzaldehyde 87. The monosaccharides having anomeric carbon atom are 1) geometrical isomers 2) ? -and ? -optical isomers 3) having symmetrical carbon atoms 4) None of the above 88. Diacidic base is 1) CH2(OH)2 2) Ca(OH)2 3) CH3CH(OH)2 4) All of these 89.Which of the following behaves as Lewis acid and not as Bronsted acid ? 1) HCl 2) H2SO4 3) HSO-3 4) SO3 90. Thermite process is used in reduction of 1) Cr2O3 2) Al2O3 3) PbO2 4) CuO 91. Example of geometrical isomerism is 1) 2-butanol 2) 2-butene 17/39 eng. edooni. com 3) butanal 4) 2-butyne 92. Mustard gas is a 1) oil gas 2) poisonous gas 3) fuel gas 4) life gas 93. The pair of elements having approximately equal ionisation potential is 1) Al, Ga 2) Al, Si 3) Al, Mg 4) Al, B 94. Bakelite is a 1) natural polymer 2) addition polymer 3) condensation polymer 4) homopolymer 95.Name of method use to separate primary, secondary and tertiary amines is 1) Hofmann method 2) Lucas method 3) Victor Meyer method 4) Kolbe method 96. Main product obtained from the reaction of ammonia and formaldehyde is 1) formic acid 2) methylamine 3) methanol 4) urotropine 97. TEL is a compound used as 1) antibiotic 2) antiseptic 3) antiknocking 4) antioxidant 98. Water is well known amphoprotic solvent. In which chemical reaction water is behaving as base ? 18/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 2) 3) 4) 99. Which of the following is not a physical equilibrium ? ) Ice 2) I2(s) 3) S(l) 4) 3O2 Water I2(g) S(g) 2O3 100. The polymer which is used in not-sticky kitchenware is 1) PVC 2) teflon 3) rayon 4) isoprene 101. The chemical which is used for plastering the broken bones is 1) (CaSO4)2H2O 2) MgSO4 . 7H2O 3) FeSO4 . 7H2O 4) CuSO4 . 5H2O 102. Dry ice is 1) solid H2O 2) solid CO2 3) solid N2O4 4) solid NH3 103. Precipitate of AgCl is soluble in liquid NH3, the compound forms 1) Ag(NH4)2OH 2) Ag(NH4)2Cl 3) Ag(NH3)2OH 4) Ag(NH3)2Cl 10 4. In qualitative analysis, in III group NH4Cl is added before NH4OH because 1) to increase the concentration of NH+4 ions 9/39 eng. edooni. com 2) to increase the concentration of Cl- ions 3) to reduce the concentration of OH- ions 4) to increase the concentration of OH- ions 105. Solution of sodium thiosulphate in photography works as 1) to shine film 2) to develop film 3) to dissolve silver bromide 4) to change negative into positive 106. Phenol on treatment with diethyl sulphate in presence of NaOH gives 1) phenetole 2) anisole 3) diphenyl ether 4) diethyl ether 107. 2. 5 L of NaCl solution contain 5 moles of the solute. What is the molarity ? 1) 5 M 2) 2 M 3) 2. 5 M 4) 12. 5 M 108.The most abundant element in the universe is thought to be 1) carbon 2) oxygen 3) hydrogen 4) nitrogen 109. Electromeric effect is 1) permanent effect 2) temporary effect 3) resonance effect 4) inductive effect 110. The calculated bond order in O-2 ion is 1) 1 2) 1. 5 3) 2 4) 2. 5 111. The entropy of a perfectly crystalline material is zero at 0? C. This is statement of 1) first law of thermodynamics 2) second law of thermodynamics 3) third law of thermodynamics 20/39 eng. edooni. com 4) law of conservation of energy 112. In acidic medium, the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 (Mol. wt. = M) is 1) M 2) M/2 3) M/3 4) M/6 113.When a metal atom combines with a non-metal atom, the non-metal atom will 1) lose electrons and decrease in size 2) lose electrons and increase in size 3) gain electrons and decrease in size 4) gain electrons and increase in size 114. What is the total number of moles of H2SO4 needed to prepare 5. 0 L of a 2. 0 M solution of H2SO4 ? 1) 2. 5 2) 5. 0 3) 10 4) 20 115. Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond ? 1) H and H 2) H and Br 3) N and N 4) Na and Br 116. How many joules of heat are absorbed when 70. 0 g of water is completely vaporised at its boiling point ? 1) 23,352 2) 7,000 3) 15,813 4) 158,130 117.Which quantities are conserved in all oxid ation reduction reactions ? 1) Charge only 2) Mass only 3) Both charge and mass 4) Neither charge nor mass 118. Which of the following compounds would have the highest boiling point ? 1) CH3CH2CH2CH3 2) CH3NH2 3) CH3OH 4) CH2F 2 119. In any chemical reaction, a quantity that decrease to a minimum is 21/39 eng. edooni. com 1) free energy 2) entropy 3) temperature 4) enthalpy 120. Which of the following is the weakest acid ? 1) HCl 2) HF 3) H2SO4 4) HNO3 121. Which of the following contains greatest number of oxygen atoms ? 1) 1 g of O 2) 1 g of O2 3) 1 g of O3 4) All have the same number of atoms 122.The pH of 10-8 M NaOH aqueous solution at 25? C, is 1) 7. 02 2) 7. 0 3) 6. 89 4) 6. 0 123. Decrease in atomic number is not observed during 1) ? -emission 2) ?-emission 3) positron emission 4) electron capture 124. The buffering action of an acidic buffer is maximum when its pH is equal to 1) 5 2) 7 3) 1 4) pKa 125. Which of the following will increase with the increase in temperature ? 1) surface tension 2) Viscosity 3) Molality 4) Vapour pressure 126. Which of the following will have larger dipole moment ? 22/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 2) 3) 4) 127. Which of the following would react most readily with nucleophiles ? ) 2) 3) 4) 23/39 eng. edooni. com 128. Hydride ion transfer takes place in 1) Frankland method 2) Wurtz reaction 3) Cannizaro's reaction 4) Wolff-Kishner reduction 129. An organic compound C3H6O neither gives precipitate with semicarbazide nor reacts with sodium. It could be 1) CH3CH2CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH2 = CHCH2OH 4) CH2 = CHOCH3 130. Which of the following is an organometallic compound ? 1) Lithium methoxide 2) Lithium acetate 3) Lithium dimethylamine 4) Methyl lithium 131. The quality of diesel is expressed by 1) octane number 2) cetane number 3) antiknock compound 4) presence of additives 132.Ketone upon treatment with Grignard reagent gives 1) primary alcohol 2) secondary alcohol 3) tertiary alcohol 4) aldehyde 133. Racemic compound has 1) equimolar mixture of enantiomers 2) 1 : 1 mixture of enantiomer and diastereomer 3) 1 : 1 mixture of diastereomers 4) 1 : 2 mixture of enantiomers 134. Geometry of methyl free radical is 1) pyramidal 2) planar 24/39 eng. edooni. com 3) tetrahedral 4) linear 135. The reaction of sodium ethoxide with iodoethane to form diethyl ether is termed as 1) electrophilic substitution 2) nucleophilic substitution 3) electrophilic addition 4) radical substitution 136.In which of the following ways does the hydride ion tend to function ? 1) An electrophile 2) A nucleophile 3) A free radical 4) An acid 137. The following compound differ in 1) configuration 2) conformation 3) structure 4) chirality 138. The correct name for the following hydrocarbon is 1) tricyclo [4. 1. 0] heptane 2) bicyclo [5. 2. 1] heptane 3) bicyclo [4. 1. 0] heptane 4) bicyclo [4. 1. 0] hexane 139. Which of the following compounds would be the main product of an aldol condensation of acetaldehyde and acetone ? 1) CH3CH = CH . CHO 2) C H3CH = CHCOCH3 3) (CH3)2C = CH . CHO 4) (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 140.Which one of the following compounds will not react with CH3MgBr ? 25/39 eng. edooni. com 1) Ethyl acetate 2) Acetone 3) Dimethyl ether 4) Ethanol 141. The number of isomeric alkanes having the molecular formula C5H12 is 1) three 2) five 3) nine 4) thirty two 142. Which organic compound is an electrolyte ? 1) CH3Cl 2) HCOOH 3) CH3OH 4) C6H12O6 143. The electron configuration of the oxide ion is much most similar to the electron configuration of the 1) sulphide ion 2) nitride ion 3) oxygen atom 4) nitrogen atom 144. Which substance has the greatest ionic character ? 1) Cl2O 2) NCl3 3) PbCl2 4) BaCl2 145.The lattice points of a crystal of hydrogen iodide are occupied by 1) HI molecules 2) H atoms and I atoms 3) H+ cations and I- anions 4) H2 molecules and I2 molecules 146. Dehydration of alcohol usually goes by 1) E1 mechanism 2) E2 mechanism 3) E1 cb mechanism 26/39 eng. edooni. com 4) SN 2 mechanism 147. Which one of the following is a copolymer ? 1) Saran 2) Orlon 3) PVC 4) Teflon 148. Formation of coloured ions by transition metals signifies; 1) absorption of light from UV range 2) emission of light 3) presence of unpaired electrons in s and p orbitals 4) complimentary colours to the absorbed light 149.Transition metal ions show colour because 1) they absorb light 2) they emit light 3) they are paramagnetic 4) they exhibit d-d transition 150. Which one of the following compounds will not undergo aldol condensation ? 1) Acetaldehyde 2) Formaldehyde 3) Propionaldehyde 4) Acetone Section-3 Mathematics 151. The length of the normal to the curve x = a(? + sin ? ), y = a(1 – cos ? ) at ? = (? /2) is 1) 2 a 2) a/2 3) a/v2 4) v2 a 152. The maximum value of ((log x)/x) is 1) e 153. In the interval 2) 2 e , = 0 is the number 3) 1/e of real solutions 4) 2/e of the equations 27/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 0 154. If 1) 1 2) -1 3) 0 4) None of these 2) 2 ) 1 4) 3 is continuous at x = 0, then the value of k wi ll be 155. The sum of all odd numbers between 1 and 1000 which are divisible by 3 is 1) 83667 2) 90000 3) 83660 4) None of these 156. In a college 25% boys and 10% girls offer Mathematics. There are 60% girls in the college. If a Mathematics student is chosen at random, then the probability that the student is a girl, will be 1) 1/6 2) 3/8 3) 5/8 4) 5/6 157. Differential equation of those circles which passes through origin and their centres lie on y-axis will be 1) (x2 – y2) (dy/dx) + 2xy = 0 2) (x2 – y2) (dy/dx) = 2xy 3) (x2 – y2) (dy/dx) = xy 4) (x2 – y2) (dy/dx) + xy = 0 158.If tan ? = k cot ? , then 1) (1 + k)/(1 – k) 2) (1 – k)/(1 + k) 3) (k + 1)/(k – 1) 4) (k – 1)/(k + 1) is equal to 159. If cot (cos-1 x) = sec 1) 2) , then x is equal to 28/39 eng. edooni. com 3) 4) 160. If distance between directrices of a rectangular hyperbola is 10, then distance between its foci will be 1) 10v2 161. 2) 5 3) 5v2 4) 20 Number of soluti on of the equation is 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 162. dx is equal to 1) 3? /16 2) 3? 2/16 3) 16? /3 4) 16? 2/3 163. 1) 2) dx is equal to 3) 4) 164. If f (x) = sin2 x + sin2 to 1) 1 2) -1 + cos x cos and g 1, then gof (x) is equal 3) 2 4) -2 + is collinear to 165. , , are three non-zero vectors; no two of them are parallel. If and + is collinear to , then + + is equal to 1) 2) 29/39 eng. edooni. com 3) 4) 166. In tossing of a coin (m + n) (m > n) times, the probability of coming consecutive heads at least m times is 1) 2) 3) 4) 167. If f (x) = 1) 1 , then 2) 48 3) -48 is equal to 4) -1 – | = 2v2 and the 168. Let = 2i + j – 2 and = i + j. If is a vector such that . = | |, | angle between ? and is 30? , then |( ? ) ? | is equal to 1) 2/3 2) 3/2 3) 2 4) 3 169.The value of 1) 1 sq unit 2) 2 sq unit 3) 3 sq unit 4) 5 sq unit dx is 170. The differential equation of all circles touching the axis of y at origin and centre on the xaxis is given by 1) xy (dy/dx) – x2 + y2 = 0 2) 2xy (dy/dx) – x2 – y2 = 0 3) (x2 + y2) (dy/dx) – 2xy = 0 4) None of the above 171. The solution of the differential equation 1) ye2vx = 2v(x) + c 2) ye-2vx = v(x) + c is given by 30/39 eng. edooni. com 3) y = vx 4) y = 3vx 172. The solution of the equation 1) sin-1 y – sin-1 x = c 2) sin-1 y + sin-1 x = c 3) sin-1 (xy) = 2 4) None of the above 173.If 1) p < 0 2) 0 < p < 1 3) p = 1 4) p > 1 174. If a real valued function f of a real variable x is such that is differentiable at x = 0, then is , then f(x) is equal to 1) (1 – x)/2 2) (x2 + 1)/2 3) 1 – x 4) None of these 175. If the vectors i – 2j + 3 , -2i + 3j – 4 , ? i – j + 2 are linearly dependent, then the value of ? is equal to 1) 0 176. If 2) 1 3) 2 i] i + 2[ 4) 3 j] j + 2[ ] +[ and are two non-zero non-collinear vectors, then 2[ ] is equal to ? + 1) 2( ? ) 2) 3) 4) None of these 177. If ( ? )2 + ( 1) 13 . )2 = 676 and | | = 2, then | | is equal to 1/39 eng. edooni. c om 2) 26 3) 39 4) None of these 178. If a, b, c are in GP, then the equation ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 and dx2 + 2ex + f = 0 have a common root, if d/a, e/b, f/c are in 1) AP 2) HP 3) GP 4) None of these 179. If x = v7 – v5 and y = v13 – v11, then 1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y 4) None of these 180. If one root of equation x2 + ax + 12 = 0 is 4 while the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 has equal roots, then the value of b is 1) 4/49 2) 49/4 3) 7/4 4) 4/7 181. One of the square roots of 6 + 4v3 is 1) v3(v(3) + 1) 2) -v3(v(3) – 1) 3) v3(-v(3) + 1) 4) None of these 182.If cos 20? – sin 20? = p, then cos 40? is equal to 1) p2v(2 – p2) 2) pv(2 – p2) 3) p + v(2 – p2) 4) p – v(2 – p2) 183. If tan x = (b/a), then the value of a cos 2x + b sin 2x is 1) 1 2) ab 3) b 4) a 184. If Sn = cosn ? + sinn ? , then the value of 3S4 – 2S6 is given by 1) 4 2) 0 3) 1 4) 7 32/39 eng. edooni. com 185. The distance between the parallel lines 9Ãâ€"2  œ 6xy + y2 + 18x – 6y + 8 = 0 is 1) 2/v10 2) 1/v10 3) 4/v10 4) None of these 186. The lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are diameters of a circle of area 154 sq unit.Then, the equation of the circle is 1) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 51 2) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 49 3) x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y = 47 4) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 47 187. The dice are thrown n times in succession. The probability of obtaining a double six at least once is 1) (1/36)n 2) 1 – (35/36)n 3) (1/12)n 4) None of these 188. A and B toss a coin alternately on the understanding that the first to obtain heads wins the toss. The probability that A wins the toss 1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/4 4) 3/4 189. In an assemble of 4 persons the probability that at least 2 of them have the same birthday, is 1) 0. 293 2) 0. 4 3) 0. 0001 4) 0. 016 190. A particle is thrown with the velocity v with the angle ? from the horizontal plane and its range on the horizontal plane is twice to the maximum height gained. Then, tan ? is equal to 1) 9 191. If 1) -1 = 0 and x, y, z are all distinct, then xyz is equal to 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3 2) 5 3) 2 4) 1 33/39 eng. edooni. com 1) -1 192. If 1) 100 A 2) 299 A 3) 2100 A 4) 99 A 2) 1 , then A100 is equal to 3) 0 4) 3 193. If sum of n terms of two AP's are in the ration 2n + 3 : 6n + 5, then the ration of their 13th term is 1) 29/83 2) 27/77 3) 31/89 4) 53/155 194.Let a relation R be defined on set of all real numbers by a R b if and only if 1 + ab ; 0. Then, R is 1) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric 2) reflexive, symmetric but not transitive 3) symmetric, transitive but not reflexive 4) an equivalence relation 195. If 1) (1, 2, 3) 2) (2, 1, 3) 3) (3, 1, 2) 4) (3, 2, 1) , then (x, y, z) is equal to 196. If positive numbers a, b, c are in HP and c ; a, then log (a + c) + log (a – 2b + c) is equal to 1) 2 log (c – b) 2) 2 log (a + c) 3) 2 log (c – a) 4) 2 log (a – c) 197. The dice are thrown together.Then the probability that th e sum of numbers appearing on them is a prime number, is 1) 5/12 2) 7/18 3) 13/36 4) 11/36 34/39 eng. edooni. com 198. In a triangle ABC, AB = 1, AC = 2 and 1) 75? 2) 90? 3) 120? 4) 135? A = 60? , its largest angle is equal to 199. From the top of a cliff 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30? and 45?. The height of tower is 1) 50 m 2) 50v3 m 3) 50(v(3) – 1) m 4) 50(1 – (v(3)/3)) m 200. The points 0, 2 + 3i, i, -2 – 2i in the argand plane are the vertices of a 1) rectangle 2) rhombus 3) trapezium 4) parallelogram 201.One of the values of 1) v3 + i 2) -i 3) i 4) -v3 + i is 202. The value of tan-1 (1/2) + tan-1 (1/3) + tan-1 (7/8) is 1) tan-1 (7/8) 2) cot-1 15 3) tan-1 15 4) tan-1 (25/24) 203. The locus of points of intersection perpendicular tangents to a parabola is a 1) straight line 2) circle 3) parabola 4) hyperbola 204. The middle point of the chord x + 3y = 2 of the conic x2 + xy – y2 = 1 is 35/39 eng. edooni. com 1) (5, -1) 2) (1, 1) 3) (2, 0) 4) (-1, 1) 205. If tangents at extremities of a focal chord AB of the parabola y2 = 4ax intersect at a point C, then ACB is equal to 1) ? /4 2) ? /3 3) ? 2 4) ? /6 206. The smallest circle with centre on y-axis and passing through the point (7, 3) has radius 1) v58 2) 7 3) 3 4) 4 207. The pair of lines joining origin to the points of intersection of the two curves ax2 + 2hxy + by2 + 2gx = 0 and a' x2 + 2h' xy + b' y2 + 2g' x = 0 will be at right angles, if 1) (a' + b')g' = (a + b)g 2) (a + b)g' = (a' + b')g 3) h2 – ab = h'2 – a'b' 4) a + b + h2 = a' + b' + h'2 208. If sum of two numbers is 6, the minimum value of the sum of their reciprocals is 1) 6/5 209. 2) 3/4 3) 2/3 4) 1/2 If b ; a, then 1) ? /2 2) ? 3) ? /2 (b – a) 4) ? /4 (b – a) s equal to 210. The solution of differential equation (1 + x)y dx + (1 – y)x dy = 0 is 1) loge (xy) + x – y = c 2) loge (x/y) + x + y = c 3) loge (x/y) – x + y = c 4) loge (xy) – x + y = c 211. The value of 1) e-1 2) e-1/2 (cos x)cot2 x is 36/39 eng. edooni. com 3) 1 4) not existing 212. The normal to the curve x = a(cos + ? sin ? ), y = a(sin ? – ? cos ? ) at any point ? is ? such that 1) it makes a constant angle with x-axis 2) it passes through origin 3) it is at a constant distance from origin 4) None of the above 213. If sin y = x sin (a + y), then (dy/dx) is equal to 1) 2) 3) 4) 14. dx is equal to 1) 2) 3) 4) 215. The function f (x) = log (1 + x) 1) (-1, ? ) 2) (-? , 0) 3) (-? , ? ) 4) None of these is increasing on 216. If is any vector, then i ? ( ? i) + j ? ( ? j) + ? ( ? ) is equal to 37/39 eng. edooni. com 1) 2) 2 3) 3 4) 217. The product of two times of flight from a point P to another point Q with a given velocity of projection is 1) PQ/g 2) 2PQ/g 3) PQ/2g 4) 3PQ/g 218. A stone of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 9. 8 ms-1. The height of the point where KE = PE is (g = 9. 8 ms-2) 1) 9. 8 m 2) 4. 9 m 3) 2. 5 m 4) 2 m 219. Three sides of a square are formed by bending a rod of length 36 cm. The distance of its CG from an open end is 1) 12 cm 2) 6v2 cm 3) 8v2 cm 4) 10 cm 220. If the resultant of two forces of magnitude P and Pv3 acting on a particle is of magnitude P, then the angle between them is 1) 60? 2) 120? 3) 90? 4) 150? 221. A particle is dropped from a height 12 g metre and 4 s after another particle is projected from the ground towards it with a velocity 4 g ms-1. The time after which the second particle meets first is 1) 4 s 2) 2 s 3) (1/2) s 4) 1 s 222.A uniform ladder rests in limiting equilibrium with its lower end on a rough horizontal plane with coefficient of friction? and its upper end against a smooth vertical wall. ? is the If 38/39 eng. edooni. com inclination of the ladder with the wall, then ? is equal to 1) tan-1 ? 2) cot-1 ? 3) cot-1 (2? ) 4) tan-1 (2? ) 223. If 1) 3/2 is a purely imaginary number, then 2) 1 3) 2/3 is equal to 4) 4/9 224. An orthogonal matrix is 1) 2) 3) 4) 225. If y = 3x + 6Ãâ€"2 + 10Ãâ€"3 + †¦. , then the value of x in terms of y is 1) 1 – (1 – y)-1/3 2) 1 – (1 + y)1/3 3) 1 + (1 + y)-1/3 4) 1 – (1 + y)-1/3 39/39 eng. edooni. comAnswer Key 1) 2 11) 3 21) 1 31) 2 41) 3 51) 1 61) 4 71) 3 81) 1 91) 2 101) 1 111) 3 121) 4 131) 2 141) 1 151) 4 161) 2 171) 2 181) 4 191) 1 201) 3 211) 2 221) 3 2) 4 12) 1 22) 1 32) 4 42) 1 52) 2 62) 1 72) 3 82) 1 92) 2 102) 2 112) 4 122) 1 132) 3 142) 2 152) 3 162) 2 172) 1 182) 2 192) 2 202) 3 212) 3 222) 4 3) 3 13) 4 23) 2 33) 3 43) 3 53) 1 63) 2 73) 1 83) 2 93) 1 103) 4 113) 4 123) 2 133) 1 143) 2 153) 3 163) 2 173) 4 183) 4 193) 4 203) 1 213) 2 223) 2 4) 1 14) 1 24) 2 34) 2 44) 2 54) 3 64) 4 74) 4 84) 3 94) 3 104) 3 114) 3 124) 4 134) 2 144) 4 154) 3 164) 1 174) 1 184) 3 194) 2 204) 4 214) 3 224) 2 5) 3 15) 2 25) 3 35) 4 45) 3 55) 1 65) 1 75) 3 85) 3 95) 1 105) 3 115) 2 125) 4 135) 2 145) 1 155) 1 165) 4 175) 1 185) 1 195) 1 205) 3 215) 1 225) 4 6) 2 16) 4 26) 1 36) 3 46) 2 56) 1 66) 4 76) 1 86) 4 96) 4 106) 1 116) 4 126) 4 136) 2 146) 1 156) 2 166) 1 176) 1 186) 4 196) 3 206) 2 216) 2 7) 2 17) 1 27) 4 37) 1 47) 2 57) 3 67) 4 77) 1 87) 2 97) 3 107) 2 117) 3 127) 3 137) 3 147) 1 157) 2 167) 2 177) 1 187) 2 197) 1 207) 2 217) 2 8) 3 18) 2 28) 4 38) 1 48) 3 58) 2 68) 4 78) 4 88) 2 98) 1 108) 3 118) 3 128) 3 138) 3 148) 4 158) 1 168) 2 178) 1 188) 2 198) 2 208) 3 218) 3 9) 1 19) 4 29) 3 39) 3 49) 1 59) 3 69) 4 79) 1 89) 4 99) 4 109) 2 119) 1 129) 4 139) 2 149) 4 159) 1 169) 3 179) 1 189) 4 199) 4 209) 2 219) 3 10) 2 20) 2 30) 1 40) 1 50) 4 60) 1 70) 1 80) 2 90) 1 100) 2 110) 2 120) 2 130) 4 140) 3 150) 2 160) 4 170) 4 180) 2 190) 3 200) 4 210) 1 220) 4 1/1 eng. edooni. com

Classroom effects of a commercially-available video music-and-movement Research Paper

Classroom effects of a commercially-available video music-and-movement program - Research Paper Example Population of study- this study was conducted on fourth grade students’ population. Music has very big influence on students in the society. This affects different classes of being in the society with each of them responding to it in their own ways. Size of study- the study will majorly focus on smaller population of the class. Duration of study- The students will be observed and video taped in 15-minutes for two weeks before I introduce the DVD. I will then use the DVD for 5-minutes before regular lessons daily. DVD This will allow comparative data analysis when the intended gist of this research is concluded. Method of information gathering- there are several methods that can be used in gathering information during research. However, in this case study I will use observation as my primary method of analysis. This will enable me to get first-hand touch of information that will ultimately be useful in drawing the conclusion. Strategy used-.Duration recording will be used as a strategy to calculate the behavior change. This strategy will be used when the change in behavior occurs. I will record the behavior during on and off tasks.

Health Care Term Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

Health Care - Term Paper Example Yet three major health providers have proposed plans to secure Americans’ health. The American Medical Association (AMA) has made the problem of how to cover the uninsured a top priority. They have proposed that â€Å"three pillars† are necessary in order to reach this goal. First, tax credits and vouchers can assist those who desperately need help, and in case the government hand-out becomes no longer necessary, they are fully refundable. Secondly, the AMA has proposed that individual choice of health insurance, with tax credits and regulatory reform, is an â€Å"effective means of reigning in runaway health care costs and premiums, without sacrificing highly prized benefits of health care† (American Medical Association). The third and final pillar concerns the regulation of markets in order to protect high-risk patients. â€Å"Regulations should protect high-risk individuals without unduly driving up health insurance premiums for the rest of the population† (American Medical Association). The AMA focuses their proposal primarily on governme nt intervention in order to stabilize the health care system. The Business Roundtable (BRT) members are another leading health care provider in the United States, providing over 35 million employees and families with medical coverage (Business Roundtable). While the AMA focuses upon regulation in their proposal for the future of health care, the BRT supports a competitive marketplace in which health insurers can offer coverage across state lines and regions, allowing a greater number of people to participate in particular programs. Overall, the BRT focuses upon the standards necessary for the health care system to grow and continue to flourish, including the â€Å"adoption of uniform, interoperable health information technology standards; dissemination of consumer information on the cost and quality of health care and comparison of the effectiveness of health care services and supplies;

Importance Of The Studying English Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Importance Of The Studying English - Essay Example This essay will continue to explain the value and excellence that I as an individual have achieved in my quest to improve at a language, that is not my own. To begin with, all my courses have been in the English language. This has ensured that my command of the language is excellent enough for me to comprehend and grasp the meaning behind what I am studying. This is evident in the various essays I have written in and out of class. The first and second in-class essays required an opinion on conflicts affecting the world and its participation today coupled with the role played by politicians and their personal lives. It is immensely difficult for a student with a sparse knowledge of the English language to write an essay portraying their opinion. Yet, I was able to do so without any hesitance or problems. The problem, that arises for any foreign student is their means of translating their native tongue into the English language while thinking of an argument to write in the essay. Howev er, I did not feel compelled to think in my native tongue. Instead I chose to write all my drafts in English before perfecting it for the final draft. While this may seem like a small feat to those honed for English writing, it is a great accomplishment for an individual like me. Other examples that prove my fluency in English are the out of class essays that had to be submitted for this course.

Situational Analysis and Discussion Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

Situational Analysis and Discussion - Essay Example Firstly, with regards to the company culture that was evidenced, the shareholder could have expressed a greater degree of tact and appreciation for the means by which Mr Majid understood his role within the organization and carefully guarded over any and all sectors he had purview over (Meyer 1998). Although Mr Majid’s response to the new employee’s job function and tactics was overstated and outright narrow-minded, the fact of the matter was that Mr Majid was still a more senior shareholder at the firm and as such commanded a modicum of deference with regards to the means by which the new employee sought to present the changes he had been tasked with to him. Secondly, and perhaps just as important, the student could have utilized the data in a more effective manner. As a function of the study that was being undertaken and the level of valuable customer service data that was being gleaned by the student and his six employees, management could have been effectively brief ed with this information and possibly convinced of its overall importance with respect to increasing profitability within the firm. Instead, the shareholder became somewhat, reasonably, combative with regards to the way in which Mr Majid felt regarding the ongoing efforts in which the student was engaged. Instead, the situation rapidly escalated with Mr Masjid coming to the conclusion that the student was of little value in his current role and the student coming to the conclusion that Mr Masjid, although having worked at the firm for a number of years... Masjid, although having worked at the firm for a number of years understood little with regards to how proper management should be effected. Finally, the reader can come away with an understanding of how proper protocol was followed on the part of the student with relation to how he ultimately went to the Human Resources director as a means of seeking to mediate the ongoing dispute between himself and Mr. Masjid. Although it is tempting in many situations to escalate on one’s own terms, knowing when to turn aside and seek to expert counsel of a third party that can hope to mediate the crisis is an invaluable skill that usually takes people many years to develop. However, as the case proved, once the initial run-in with Mr. Masjid occurred, the student was quick to seek out the expert guidance and counsel of the Human Resources director in an effort to ameliorate the situation (Sharpe, 2012). Consulting Questions and Recommendations: In order to provide some useful prioritizati ons to the student with regards to what a good course of action could have been to pursue within the given situation which has been defined, it is the belief of this reviewer that such a level of recommended actions can be summed up in the following: providing metricized understandings of the scope and benefits of the project to Mr. Masjid and fellow management rather than coming to a disagreement over the value of the work performed, the shareholder could have integrated with Mr. Masjid in a more respectful manner, and/or the shareholder could have sought to make it apparent that he was operating on the express wishes of the manager that had gone on vacation. Although the situation may not have turned

Online shopping Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words - 1

Online shopping - Research Paper Example The internet is the driving force behind online shopping because it makes transactions between different parties possible. Online shopping has positive impacts towards customers as it makes shopping fast. It has negative impacts on small businesses that have to compete against wholesalers and big retailers. Security standards used in online shopping are well-established. The security standards make it possible for payments to be done using credit cards. The card’s details are encrypted then sent over a layer that is secure over the Internet. The large number of sellers and buyers going online is an enough testimony about the safety and acceptance of online shopping. Consumers do not opt for online shopping because of low prices. Though lowest price can be a motivation for online shoppers, other factors other factors are still important. Online shopping offers better services than visiting stores. Most e-retailers offer free shipping that customer’s value the most (Thau). Many shoppers do not say low prices are their primary attraction and motivation for doing shopping over the internet. This statement was proved by a study done by Simon-Kucher & Partners, a worldwide consultancy firm that counts and records retailers among its clients. The firm did a survey over 1000 consumers. The consultancy firm warns retailers against making lowering prices. The firm says that the retailers who will lower their prices to attract and keep customers will have to undergo long term negative impacts because of that (Thau). Although it might sound unappealing, the retailers who invest in infrastructure will get long-term customer loyalty. This was concluded by Susan Lee, a partner who conducts Simon-Kucher’s retail and consumer goods in northern parts of America. Retailers only need to study and look at recent strategies employed by the nation’s biggest brick-and-mortar retailer. The

Brand Management Term Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words

Brand Management - Term Paper Example Brand orientation refers to the case where a company or business organization formulates its marketing strategies based on brands. It is a company’s inclination towards the dealing with different brands as a marketing strategy (Urde 1). Brand Management: Definition and Related Concepts Brand management This refers to the analyses of all factors and aspects related to a brand and then coming up with a strategic plan to have a uniformly distributed brand. It involves the use of marketing strategies in ensuring that the users of a particular product do not shift their interest from the brand in question. Brand awareness This refers to the ability of the consumers of a particular product to identify and classify the product among other competing products and associate it with the manufacturer (Urde 10). It enables the consumer to know what the brand has that can make it more preferable to the others. It is important for the management to ensure that awareness is carried out concerning the company’s product since no customer will buy a product he does not understand. Brand valuation This is the establishment of the financial value of a brand. Brand valuation has important applications both in strategic brand management and in financial transaction. In the former case, brand valuation ‘focuses mainly on internal audiences by providing tools and processes to manage and increase the economic value of brands’ (Brand Valuation 10).

Philosophy And Modernity Essay Example for Free

Philosophy And Modernity Essay The conflict between Philosophy and Modernity is a never ending topic. Each of the terms is individually supported by the corresponding generations. But those who support modernity, at least at some point of life will surely support philosophy. That is the power of philosophy. Let us take a mishap as example that shows us how these two issues conflict with each other. The terrorist attacks of September 11 still haunt the minds of Americans unnerved by the enormity of the crime. We need to know what could have inspired someone to do such a thing. It is bad enough to experience such a monstrous event; to feel it is inexplicable, an act with no conceivable motive, only adds to the sense of unreality. What is the source of this hostility? What ideas, values, and attitudes give rise to it? Lewiss observation contains the seeds of the two leading schools of thought about the answer to this question. Both schools place Islamist hatred of the USA in a larger cultural and historical context. Both are plausible, and in many respects they are compatible. But they differ in what they see as the essential terms of the ongoing conflict, and in their implications for the future. One school holds that the war on terror reflects an underlying conflict between Islam and the West as civilisations. Each is united, as a civilisation, by the loyalty of its people to a narrative of their past, a common religion, and shared ideas, values, and ways of life. The current tensions between Islam and the West are only the latest of the conflicts that have occurred over the centuries. The USA is a particular object of hostility now because it is the most powerful Western country. Those who reject modernity are to be found in every nation and civilization. The second school holds that terrorists hostility is directed at the principles and values of the West. On this view, what they hate is not the West as a society or a civilisation per se, but rather the culture of modernity. Modernity was born in the West, in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, but it is not inherently tied to the history or customs of any one society. It is a constellation of universal values the secular culture of reason, science, individualism, progress, democracy, and capitalism that have spread worldwide in different forms and to varying degrees. By the same token, those who reject modernity, who fear and wish to destroy it, are to be found in every nation and civilisation. And invariably they hate the USA as the fullest, most persuasive, and thus most dangerous embodiment of that culture. There are as many battles within civilisations as between them. Muslims saw military success as a mark of Allahs favour. As Seyyed Hossein Nasr, a prominent Iranian philosopher and historian, observes, During the first twelve centuries of its historic existence, Islam lived with the full awareness of the truth and realisation of Gods promise to Muslims that they would be victorious if they followed His religion. Such verses as There is no victor but God, which adorns the walls of the Alhambra, also adorned the soul and mind of Muslims. In the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, however, the tide turned. The scientific and industrial revolutions vastly increased the wealth and the military power of the West. After the defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I, the Middle East was taken over by European nations and broken up into colonies and protectorates. Today, despite decolonisation, the countries of this region remain poor and backward by comparison not only with the West but also with the booming economies of East Asia. Oil revenue has showered wealth on the region, but economic growth has been held back by layers of regulations, wasteful government enterprises and investments, not to mention corruption. Because of their strategic location, Middle Eastern countries were pawns of the Cold War but were rarely true partners or friends of either power. Now, Muslims feel they are at the mercy of a global economy driven by Western capitalism. They feel invaded by Western popular culture, which they regard as morally decadent. Israel is the salt in all these wounds a nation of people who came from the West, tore a patch of land from Islam, turned it into a vibrant, wealthy economy, and acquired the military prowess to defeat its Arab neighbours. The result of all this, is a feeling of humiliation a growing awareness, among the heirs of an old, proud, and long-dominant civilisation, of having been overtaken, overborne, and overwhelmed by those whom they regarded as their inferiors. Having tried to take on Western ways, with dismal results, they are increasingly drawn to the idea that the solution is a return to the pure Islamic faith that reigned in the days of their former greatness. The clash-of-civilisations school doubtless represents part of the truth of the matter. But it is not the whole truth, and not the fundamental truth. Its chief shortcoming is that it exaggerates the extent of agreement in outlook, values, ideas, and loyalties among people who share the common history and culture that define a civilisation. In fact, there are as many battles over these issues within civilisations as between them especially in the West. The hijackers target was a temple of modernity. At the level of fundamental philosophical principles, however, the Enlightenment period was much more important as a turning point in the West, and in a way created a new civilisation. Anti-modernism Modernity was born in the West in a radical transformation of its past. The world of the Middle Ages, built around the world-view of Christian Scholasticism, was a society of religious philosophy, feudal law, and an agricultural economy. Out of this soil, the Renaissance and Enlightenment produced a substantially new society of science, individualism, and industrial capitalism. When we examine the wider context of Islamic terrorism, it is clear that a hatred of modernity is its driving force. The cultural foundation of this new society, if we state it as a set of explicit theses, was the view that reason, not revelation, is the instrument of knowledge and arbiter of truth; that science, not religion, gives us the truth about nature; that the pursuit of happiness in this life, not suffering in preparation for the next, is the cardinal value; that reason can and should be used to increase human wellbeing through economic and technological progress; that the individual person is an end in himself with the capacity to direct his own life, not a slave or a child to be ruled by others; that individuals have equal rights to freedom of thought, speech, and action; that religious belief should be a private affair, tolerance a social virtue, and church and state kept separate; and that we should replace command economies with markets, warfare with trade, and rule by king or commissar with democracy. It is therefore misleading to call our civilisation Christian, even though that remains the largest religion in terms of adherents. The West may still be a culture of Christians, by and large, but it is not a Christian culture anymore. It is a secular culture. And that is what the Islamists hate most about us. The al-Qaeda hijackers did not target the Vatican, the capital of Western Christianity whose leaders launched the Crusades. They did not attack the British Foreign Office, which directed colonial policy in the Middle East after World War I. They attacked the World Trade Centre, the proud symbol of engineering audacity and global commerce, where businesses from scores of countries (including many Muslim countries) worked in freedom and peace, creating wealth and investing in material progress. Their target, in short, was a temple of modernity. The culture of modernity is not a Western good but a human good Modernity meant people changing their relationship with both the world and themselves. For the first time, through science, they realised that many things, such as certain weather patterns or illnesses, were not a matter of fate. The social order no longer seemed impossible to change either. Revolutions could sweep away despots and people could improve their living standards. The threat posed by the Islamist terrorists derives not from their Islamic background but from the ideas, values, and motivations they share with anti-modernists everywhere-including in the West. In that regard, they have not merely assaulted our civilisation. They have attacked civilisation as such. Civilisation is the condition a society attains when it emerges from prehistoric barbarism and begins to apply intelligence systematically to the problems of human life, by creating technologies of production like farming, technologies of cognition like writing, and technologies of social order like cities and law. The culture of modernity is one of these permanent contributions the most important. Though Western in origin, it is not a Western good but a human good. It has vastly expanded our knowledge of the world; brought a vast increase in wealth, comfort, safety, and health; and created social institutions in which humans can flourish. Anti-modernism is not simply loyalty to pre-modern stages of civilisation on the part of people who have not yet discovered reason and individualism. It is a postmodern reaction by people who have seen modernity and turned against it, who hate and wish to destroy it. This is a profoundly anti-human outlook, and there can be no compromise with it. As we take aim at the terrorists who have attacked us, we must also take intellectual aim at the ideas that inspire them.

Ampicillin and Kanamycin Resistant Bacteria Comparison

Ampicillin and Kanamycin Resistant Bacteria Comparison Antibiotic use throughout the world has increased tremendously over the decades. In the past, antibiotic resistance was most prevalent in areas of frequent antibiotic use, such as in medical or laboratory settings. However, the increasing use of antibiotics and antibacterial products outside of hospitals, such as in homes and schools, echoes the expansion of antibiotic resistant bacteria (LBC Biology Staff, 2010). One major source of the growing problem is that antibiotics are being over prescribed by doctors to millions of people around the world. It is currently believed that about only half of the antibiotics prescribed to patients are administered properly (Levy, 1998). In addition to over prescription by doctors, many patients misuse the antibiotics and further increase the spread of resistance. For example, some patients discontinue use of antibiotics upon feeling symptom relief, not at the end of their antibiotic schedule prescribed by the doctor. In actuality, patients are ki lling off the weakest bacteria, causing temporary relief, and allowing the stronger and more resistant bacteria to multiply at a faster rate (Levy, 1998). This and other types of antibiotic misuse have promoted the growth of strains of bacteria with resistance to antibiotic attack. This can be seen through studies that have shown Tetracycline resistance by normal human intestinal flora that exploded from 2% in the 1950s to 80% in the 1990s (Criswell, 2004). Other studies have shown Kanamycin, an antibiotic from the 1950s, has become clinically useless as a result of the prevalence of Kanamycin-resistant bacteria (Criswell, 2004). It has become visible that the development of resistance to any antibiotic, new or old, will happen in a matter of time (LBC Biology Staff, 2010). Due to the inevitability of mutation, natural selection, time and environmental conditions, resistance will be seen in more common areas like work and home. As a consequence of the every growing expansion of antiobiotic resistance, places previously thought to be uncontaminated like schools and homes have become overwhelmed with antibiotic resistant bacteria. In one household study, it was discovered that kitchen sinks contained many different types of resistant bacteria, primarily from food waste and human hands (Rusin et al., 1998). Only the application of strong bleaches and specific cleaning products on a regimented cleaning schedule led to a decreased amount of bacteria in kitchen sinks (Rusin et al., 1998). The cleaning products used in this study did not contain antibacterial ingredients, which helped reduce the spread of resistance by killing all bacteria instead of the most susceptible strains. Antibacterial products and cleaning supplies are less effective and in turn can lead to reproduction of stronger antibiotic resistant bacteria. The large amount of antibacterial cleaning products, food and waste combined with the constant water supply in sink drains allows for a greater chance of survival of antibiotic-resistant bacteria (Levy, 1998). Optimal conditions for bacterial growth with a wet environment cause a higher frequency of bacterial transmission of resistance (Perryman and Flournoy, 1980). In scientific laboratories, regulations are in place to monitor the disposal of solid and liquid wastes. Some regulations include specific waste baskets for toxic or contaminated substances and use of certain sinks only when dealing with harmful liquids in laboratory settings. This ensures that unnecessary amounts of harmful substances that could lead to resistance are not continually poured down laboratory sink drains. However, no such regulations are in effect in household environments. In a study performed in Oklahoma City the extent of growing antibiotic resistance was seen in multiple environments. Bacterial samples were gathered from sink drains in the Veterans Administration Medical Center, libraries, private homes, shopping centers, and other similar environments for comparison (Perryman and Flournoy, 1980). The goal of the experiment was to determine the types of resistant bacteria that were most prevalent in sink drains, the abundance of bacteria in sink drains, and the life span of bacteria in dry and wet environments (Perryman and Flournoy, 1980). Through testing, bacteria were found to have longer life spans in wet environments than in dry environments, and many bacteria survived for over 180 days in wet environments (Perryman and Flournoy, 1980). The high survival rate of bacteria in areas with constant water supply, such as in laboratory and kitchen sinks, supports the prediction that sinks are ideal environments for ample bacterial growth. In the afore mentioned study, bacterial growth occurred on plates containing the antibiotics gentamicin and amikacin, and it was determined that the sink drains from the medical hospital contained the highest amount of antibiotic resistant organisms. Overall, 88% of the sink drains sampled from the Veterans Administration Medical Center contained some type of antibiotic resistant bacteria (Perryman and Flournoy, 1980). While bacteria could come from other sources such as the patients and tap water, the great quantity of antibiotic resistant bacteria in all environments illustrates the need for a reduction in the overuse of antibiotics and the essential awareness of the consequences. Places with high levels of exposure to antibiotics and antibacterial products provide ideal environments for bacteria to develop resistance through replicated mutations or transmissions between bacteria. Some factors that severely add to the growing problem of antibiotic resistant bacteria include increased applications of antibacterial soaps and cleaning products, over prescription of antibiotics by doctors, misuse of antibiotics by patients, and improper care of waste products (Levy, 1998). Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics through genetic mutation, transfer of the mutation between bacteria, or transmission of the mutated DNA on a plasmid between bacteria when the resistant gene is carried on the plasmid DNA. A plasmid is a relatively small piece of circular DNA that is self replicating and independent of the chromosomal DNA of the cell. Resistant chromosomal DNA and plasmid DNA can be transmitted to the next generation through cell replication. Plasmids can be passed th rough bacterial conjugation, which involves a bacterium copying the plasmid with resistant DNA and inserting the copied plasmid into a second bacterium. Plasmid DNA can also be transferred through bacterial transformation when plasmid DNA invades another bacterium and is incorporated into the bacteriums DNA (Cognato, 2010). Understanding these problems and the mechanisms of resistance transmission is the first step in preventing further development of resistant strains of bacteria. The focus of the experiment at hand is to determine whether the bacteria located in a laboratory sink or in an apartment garbage disposal contains more antibiotic resistant strains. It was hypothesized that the apartment garbage disposal would contain more antibiotic resistant bacteria than the laboratory sink. This is due to the abundance of contaminated materials that pass through garbage disposals in comparison to the regulated materials that pass through laboratory sinks. The null hypothesis is that the amounts of antibiotic resistant bacteria that exist in the garbage disposal sink and laboratory sink will be equal. Many steps were needed to accomplish this research and obtain the sample bacteria to determine the resistance. Samples from the laboratory sink and the apartment garbage disposal were swabbed on agar plates to obtain a culture of bacteria. Colonies were selected based on growth and seclusion from the bacterial lawn. Individual bacteria were then streaked on master patch plates for each environment. After the bacteria had grown, individual colonies were selected to be streaked on antibiotic plates containing Ampicillin, Kanamycin, and Tetracycline. Antibiotic resistant bacteria were chosen from the antibiotic plates, separated and characterized. Next, plasmids from the antibiotic resistant bacteria were isolated and spliced using restriction endonucleases to determine band length of resistant plasmid DNA to help identify the type of bacteria. Competent E. coli cells were transformed with the control plasmid DNA to convey antibiotic resistance and support bacteria identification. Final ly, the bacterial DNA was replicated by polymerase chain reaction to amplify the 16S rRNA gene in hopes to obtain sequencing information of a known bacterium. It was predicted that resistant bacteria, for all antibiotics, will be Gram negative due to easier entry of resistant plasmid DNA into the cell. Bacteria with a thin cell wall layer and an outer membrane surrounding the peptidoglycan layer are Gram negative. Bacteria with a thick wall layer that do not have the peptidoglycan layer surrounding are Gram positive. Gram identity was verified through Gram staining, a KOH test, and observing growth on a MacConkey agar and Eosin Methylene Blue Agar plate. Methods Swab Plates A sterile cotton swab saturated in sterile phosphate-buffered saline was used to gather samples from the laboratory sink and an apartment garbage disposal. Bacterial samples from the disposal and lab sinks were collected from the underside of the drain. Bacteria were then swabbed onto Lysogeny broth agar plates (three per environment). Plates were placed into an incubator for 24 hours at 37Â °C. Following the incubation period, plates were removed, parafilmed, and refrigerated at 4Â °C until needed. Master Patch Plates Master plates were made by placing sixteen individual colonies onto a 44 grid on Lysogeny broth (LB) only plates. An inoculation loop was used to transfer the 16 individual colonies from the sample plate onto a grid of the master plate. Plates were labeled with D for the apartment garbage disposal and L for the laboratory sink along with a number (1, 2, or 3) to distinguish between swabbed samples. Plates were incubated at 37Â °C for 24 hours, removed, sealed with parafilm, and refrigerated at 4Â °C until needed. Antibiotic Patch Plates Antibiotic agar plates were made by mixing 8.4g agar with 12g LB powder and 600mL of distilled water (dH2O), and then autoclaved. After cooling, 2.4Â µL of Ampicillin, 1.2Â µL of Kanamycin, or 2.4Â µL of Tetracycline were added appropriately and plates were poured. One colony per grid of the master patch plate was obtained with an inoculation loop, and the bacteria were transferred in a line onto a corresponding grid on the antibiotic plates. The number of squares that contained bacterial growth was observed and recorded. One colony of the bacteria grown on the antibiotic patch plates was then streaked onto a new antibiotic plate to obtain individual colonies of bacteria for further study. Miniprep A liquid culture was performed in preparation for the Promega Wizard Plus SV Miniprep DNA Purification System, which was used to isolate plasmid DNA from antibiotic resistant bacteria. First, 5Â µL of antibiotic was added to a 5mL tube filled with a liquid medium made of LB. A single colony of bacteria was added to the medium and placed in a shaker at 37Â °C for 24 hours. The liquid culture was then transferred into an Eppendorf tube and centrifuged for 5 minutes at 4,400rpm. Liquid media waste was disposed of and the pellet was thoroughly re-suspended in 250Â µL of Cell Resuspension Solution. If the bacteria were Gram positive, 63Â µL of lysozyme would be added to the solution. Since the bacteria studied was Gram negative, the process continued with the addition of 250Â µL of Cell Lysis Solution was added to the Eppendorf tube containing the resuspended bacterial solution and the sample was mixed. Subsequently, 10Â µL Alkaline Protease Solution was added, mixed, and incubated for 5 minutes at room temperature. Then, 350Â µL Neutralization Solution was added, mixed, and centrifuged for 10 minutes at 13,500rpm. A Spin Column was inserted in a Collection Tube and the clear lysate was decanted into the Spin Column. This was centrifuged for 1 minute at 13,500rpm and the flowthrough was discarded. The Spin Column was replaced, 750Â µL of wash solution was added, and the solution was centrifuged for 1 minute at 13,500rpm. The flowthrough was discarded, and this process was repeated with a 250Â µL wash. The solution was centrifuged for 2 minutes at 13,500rpm. The Spin Column was transferred to a 1.5mL Eppendorf tube. Finally, 50Â µL of Nuclease-Free Water was added and then the solution was centrifuged for 1 minute at 13,500rpm. The column was discarded and the DNA was stored at -20ËÅ ¡C. Gel Electrophoresis DNA electrophoresis was used to determine the length of the plasmid DNA of the environmental samples and Blue plasmid control (pKAN). First, 0.7g of agarose powder was added to 70mL of 1X TBE. The solution was heated in a microwave for 1 minute so the agarose powder was completely dissolved. After the mixture cooled, 3Â µL of Ethidium bromide was added and the gel was taken out of the mold and put on the rig. The gel was submerged in a 1X TBE buffer. The wells of the gel were filled with 10Â µL of a mixture containing 8Â µL of plasmid DNA and 2Â µL of plasmid dye, and the gel ran for 60 minutes on 80 volts. The 1% agarose gel was viewed under an ultraviolet light to compare lengths of DNA with the 1KB ladder. Gram Staining Gram staining was used to determine the Gram identity of bacteria. Bacteria that are Gram negative stained red and bacteria that are Gram positive stained violet. A colony of bacteria was added to an Eppendorf tube with 400Â µL of dH2O. After vortexing, 5Â µL of the solution was pipetted onto a slide. Once dry, the slide was passed over a flame to affix the bacteria to the glass, preventing the removal of bacteria. The slide was flooded drop-wise with crystal violet and iodine, and rinsed with dH2O for 5 seconds after the addition of each reactant. Ethanol was added until the color was no longer emitted, then rinsed with dH2O for 5 seconds. Safranin was added drop-wise for 1 minute and then rinsed with dH2O for 5 seconds. The slide was observed under a microscope to determine Gram identity. KOH Test The KOH test for Gram positive and negative bacteria was begun by pipetting 20Â µL of 3% KOH on a slide. After adding one clump of bacteria to the KOH, the consistency of the solution was observed. If the solution was thick, viscous and adhered to the inoculation loop, the bacteria were Gram negative. If the solution was thin and not viscous, the bacteria were Gram positive. MacConkey Agar Plate A MacConkey agar plate was streaked with antibiotic resistant bacteria from the garbage disposal and laboratory sink. After incubation at 37ËÅ ¡C for 24 hours, the plates were observed for growth to indicate Gram negative bacteria. The MacConkey agar plate also signaled lactose fermentation with the appearance of pink colonies. Eosin Methylene Blue Agar Plate (EMB) An EMB plate was streaked with antibiotic resistant bacteria from the apartment garbage disposal and the laboratory sink as well as a positive E.coli control. After incubation at 37ËÅ ¡C for 24 hours, the plates were observed for growth to indicate Gram negative bacteria. The EMB agar plate indicated strong lactose fermentation through the appearance of dark green metallic colonies and a lesser degree of lactose fermentation through the appearance of purple or pink colonies. Restriction Digest Restriction enzymes cut the control pKAN DNA at specific restriction sites identified by the NEBcutter V2.0. The enzymes used in restriction digest were BamHI and EcoRI in Buffer II, and PvuI and PstI in Buffer III. The reaction solution used in restriction digest consists of 10Â µL of DNA, 1Â µL of each enzyme, 2Â µL of NEBuffer, and 7Â µL of de-ionized distilled water (ddH2O) added together in an Eppendorf tube. The solution was centrifuged at 14,500rpm for 30 seconds and then incubated for 24 hours at 37ËÅ ¡C. A plasmid map created from the NEBcutter V2.0 was compared to a gel electrophoresis run on a 1% aragose gel with plasmid DNA. The gel electrophoresis compared Blue plasmid (pKAN) DNA that was uncut with the Blue control plasmid (pKAN) that was cut with restriction enzymes. Transformation After plasmid DNA preparation, 22Â µL of E. coli competent cells were added to three separate Eppendorf tubes. In one tube, 5Â µL of control DNA, pKAN, was added and stirred with the pipette tip. In the second tube, a negative control was made with the addition of 5Â µL of dH2O that was then stirred with a pipette tip. In the third tube, a positive control was made with the addition of 1Â µL of known pKAN, and the solution was stirred with a pipette tip. The tubes were then incubated in ice 30 minutes. The cells were heat shocked for 45 seconds at 42ËÅ ¡C and then placed on ice for 2 minutes. 250Â µL of pre-warmed (37ËÅ ¡C) SOC medium was added to all three of the Eppendorf tubes, and the tubes were then incubated in a shaker at 37ËÅ ¡C for 1 hour at 2,250rpm. Upon removal from the incubator, 75Â µL of each transformation were spread onto plates with a sterilized hockey stick. The transformed control DNA, pKAN, cells and the negative control dH2O transformed cell s were spread onto LB only plates, ampicillin antibiotic plates, and kanamycin antibiotic plates to determine if resistance to antibiotics was transferred in the transformation. The transformed positive control, known pKAN, cells was spread onto a LB only plate and a kanamycin plate since pKAN is known to be resistant to kanamycin. Plates were incubated for 24 hours at 37ËÅ ¡C and numbers of resistant bacterial colonies were observed. Bacterial growth on the control DNA, pKAN, transformation antibiotic plates would signal resistance to the antibiotic in the plate, and growth on the LB only plate would signal the existence of bacterial cells from the transformation. No growth on the dH2O negative control plates containing ampicillin and kanamycin antibiotics would signal a correct transformation as long as there was bacterial growth on the LB only plate. Growth on the positive control, known pKAN, transformation plate signaled the correct transfer of kanamycin resistant plasmid DNA into the competent E.coli cells. Polymerase Chain Reaction The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) involved mixing a reaction cocktail that included 80Â µL of Nuclease-free water, 10Â µL of 10X Thermopol buffer, 3Â µL of 10mM dNTPs, 2Â µL of 11F @ 10Â µM, 2Â µL of 1492R @ 10Â µM, and 1Â µL of Taq polymerase @ 5000U/mL. The solution was then mixed through vortexing. Subsequently, 22Â µL of the cocktail was transferred to each of the 4 PCR tubes. A small portion of each bacterial colony was added to SOC medium and mixed. Then 5Â µL of SOC medium with bacteria was added to each tube. Tube 1 had environmental bacteria, tube 2 had different environmental bacteria, tube 3 had the control E.coli and 5Â µL of H2O was added to tube 4. The reactions were placed in the thermocycler in C4. The PCR cycling program consists of five steps. The first step is pre-denaturation in which the PCR mixing reaction cocktail is heated at 95Â °C for 5 minutes. The second step is denaturation, which involves heating the reaction cocktail at 95Â °C for 30 seco nds to unwind and separate the DNA. The third step is annealing, which is run at 50Â °C for 30 seconds to allow the 11F and 1492R primers to attach to the DNA template strands. The fourth step is elongation, which is run at 72Â °C for 45 seconds to allow the DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) to add dNTPs and replicate the 16S gene. The fifth step is the final elongation, which is run at 72Â °C for 7 minutes. The hold between cycles is run at 4Â °C, and the PCR is run for 35 cycles. Gel electrophoresis was run to determine if a successful PCR reaction took place. 10Â µL of the PCR solution from each tube was mixed with 2Â µL of plasmid dye, and 10Â µL of the mixtures were loaded into the wells of the 1% agarose gel. Chi Squared Test of Independence A Chi Squared Test of Independence was run to determine if a statistically significant difference exists between the numbers of antibiotic resistant bacteria from the two environments. The number of grids on the antibiotic plates was recorded only if the bacteria grew on both the antibiotic plate and the LB only plate. The test was run on Vassar Stats and gave a p-value to correspond to the data and indicate if there was a significant difference. Results Swab and Master Patch Plates After the incubation period of 24 hours at 37 C, the swab plates, labeled L for laboratory sink samples (L1-L3) and D for garbage disposal sink samples (D1-D3), were observed and found that 100% of the environmental bacteria grew (Figure 1). Bacteria growth in both environments was indicated by white colored spots or streaks within the plates grid. Master plates were observed from both experimental environments and found to have growth on all of the 16 grids on each plate (Figure 2). Antibiotic Patch Plates From the garbage disposal sink, the three samples all had some level of growth (Figure 3). The following percentages were calculated by dividing the number of grids with bacterial development on the antibiotic plates by the number of grids with growth from the LB plates (Table 1). Plate D1 showed 100%, 62.5%, 0%, and 100% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. Plate D2 demonstrated 93.75%, 93.75%, 0%, and 100% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. Plate D3 showed 93.75%, 75%, 0%, and 100% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. From the laboratory sink, all samples had bacteria development (Figure 4). Plate L1 demonstrated 100%, 93.75%, 12.5%, and 100% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. Plate L2 showed 100%, 73.33%, 6.67%, and 93.75% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. Plate L3 demonstrated 57.14%, 42.86%, 7.14%, and 87.5% growth on the Ampicillin, Kanamycin, Tetracycline, and LB only plates respectively. Chi Squared Test of Independence Data obtained from the number of antibiotic resistant colonies on the antibiotic patch plates was used to run the Chi-squared Test of Independence for Ampicillin and Kanamycin resistant bacteria. For Ampicillin resistant bacteria, the p-value obtained was 0.74. With one degree of freedom, the Chi-squared critical value of 3.84 obtained from a Chi-squared Distribution Table in comparison to the Chi-squared statistical value denoted no statistically significant difference. For Kanamycin resistant bacteris, the calculated p-value was 0.81. With one degree of freedom, comparison of the Chi-squared critical value of 3.84 found in a Chi-squared Distribution Table and the Chi-squared statistical value demonstrated no statistically significant difference (Table 1). Gram Staining, KOH, MacConkey Agar and Eosin Methylene Blue Agar Plates Four tests were used to determine the gram identity of bacteria from the experimental environments. The results showed that the three environmental bacteria slides were stained pink indicating gram negative bacteria (Figure 5, Table 2). For the KOH test, all three samples from both environments appeared viscous and thick, indicating gram negative bacteria (Table 2). The MacConkey Agar Plate was divided into three sections for the different antibiotic resistant bacteria. The environmental bacterial sample in Section 1 was obtained from the Ampicillin antibiotic plate L2 grid #3. The bacterial sample in Section 2 was obtained from the Kanamycin antibiotic plate L2 grid #14. The bacterial sample in Section 3 was obtained from the Kanamycin antibiotic plate D2 grid #16. All three samples in the three sections grew bacteria that were stained pink, indicating Gram negative bacteria that ferment lactose (Figure 6, Table 2). The Eosin Methylene Blue Agar Plate was sectioned off into four par ts and bacteria from three environmental samples and one E.coli positive control were plated. The bacterial sample in Section 1 was taken from the Ampicillin antibiotic plate L2 grid #3. The bacterial sample in Section 2 was obtained from the Kanamycin antibiotic plate L2 grid #14. The bacterial sample in Section 3 was gathered from the Kanamycin antibiotic plate D2 grid #16. The bacterial sample in Section 4 was obtained from an E. coli plate that was known to be Gram negative. Pink colonies formed in all four sections, signaling Gram negative identity of the bacteria and lactose fermentation (Figure 6, Table 2). Mini Prep and Gel Electrophoresis Promega Wizard Plus SV Miniprep DNA Purification System was run to isolate plasmid DNA. This plasmid DNA was run on a 1% agarose gel. The lengths of bands in Trial A could not be determined because the DNA in the wells did not run with the ladder. The Blue control plasmid, which was pKAN, was located in lane 3 in Trial A and Trial B and was used to indicate a successful Miniprep. The band length of the pKAN control DNA in Trial B was about 4,200 base pairs. An environmental plasmid found on Ampicillin streak plate L2, grid #3 was used in lane 7 in Trial A and lane 5 in Trial B. In Trial B, the base pair length of the environmental bacteria plasmid used in lane 5 could not be determined due to the appearance of many bands of varying length. An environmental plasmid from Kanamycin streak plate L2, grid #14 was used in lane 5 in Trial A and lane 7 in Trial B. The band length of this environmental plasmid in Trial B could not be determined due to the faint appearance of a band greater th an 10,000bp. Another environmental plasmid from Kanamycin streak plate D2, grid#16 was used in lane 6 in both Trial A and Trial B. The band length of this environmental plasmid in Trial B also could not be determined from the faint appearance of a band greater than 10,000bp (Figure 7). Restriction Digest In Trial A, restriction digest was used to cut the Blue control pKAN DNA with the enzymes BamHI, EcoRI, PstI, and PvuI. Lane 3 displays pKAN cut with PstI and PvuI. Lane 4 displays pKAN cut with BamHI and EcoRI. The lengths of the bands shown are about 4,000bp, 3,000bp, 2,500bp, 1,500bp, and 1,200bp.The lengths of the bands shown are about 1,700bp, 1,100bp, 750bp, 600bp, and 500bp. Lanes 5-8 contained environmental bacterial DNA that was cut with BamHI, EcoRI, PstI, and PvuI as well, but no bands were observed (Figure 8). In Trial B, restriction digest was used to cut pKAN DNA with only the enzymes BamHI and EcoRI. Lane 3 displays pKAN that was cut with BamHI, showing a band length that is about 4,200bp. Lane 4 shows pKAN that was cut with EcoRI, and the band lengths shown are about 8,000bp, 5,000bp, and 4,000bp. Lane 5 displays pKAN that was cut with BamHI and EcoRI, and the band lengths shown are about 4,100bp, 3,100bp, and 2,000bp. Lane 6 shows pKAN that remained uncut with a band length of about 4,200bp (Figure 9). Transformation Transformation was performed to convey resistance carried on plasmid DNA into competent E. coli cells. Blue plasmid control DNA (pKAN) was used for the transformation, which was successful. This was indicated by the growth of transformed bacteria on Kanamycin antibacterial plates (Figure 10). Polymerase Chain Reaction A Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) was used to amplify and prepare the 16S gene of rRNA. Gel electrophoresis was run on the PCR product to determine if a successful PCR reaction had taken place. Lane 3 contains PCR product from the Kanamycin plate L1 grid #14 and lane 4 contains PCR product from the master patch plate D3 grid #16. Bands were not seen in these lanes containing environmental bacteria, signaling an unsuccessful PCR. Lane 5 displays the negative water control without bands. Lane 6 shows the positive E. coli control PCR product with a band length of about 2,000bp (Figure 11). Discussion The study showed that no statistically significant difference existed between the amount of antibiotic resistant bacteria in the garbage disposal and laboratory sink and it also characterized all of the environmental bacteria as Gram negative. To determine the amount of bacteria located in the experimental areas, many tests were utilized to analyze the bacterium. Patch plates containing Tetracycline, Ampicillin, Kanamycin and LB were made in order to verify antibiotic resistant bacteria and growth. The plates with bacterial growth that was resistant to Ampicillin and Kanamycin were used in a statistical analysis to determine a correlation between the amounts of growth and the two environments. Our prediction that the amount of bacterial growth from the garbage disposal sink in Capitol Villa would be greater than the Lyman Briggs lab sink in C5 was refuted due to the Chi-squared Test for Independence that showed no statistically significant difference. We failed to reject the null hyp othesis that no difference existed between the amounts of antibiotic resistant bacteria found in each environment. A Chi-squared Test for Independence was run to compare the amounts of antibiotic resistant bacteria on the Ampicillin and Kanamycin plates. Tetracycline was not used because no data indicated resistance. The existence of Ampicillin and Kanamycin resistant bacteria in both the garbage disposal and the laboratory sink is unsurprising due to the widespread clinical use of both antibiotics over the past decades (Criswell, 2004). For Ampicillin, a total of 178 bacterial streaks grew between the two environments and a p-value of 0.74 was calculated. With one degree of freedom, the Chi-squared critical value of 3.84 obtained from a Chi-squared Distribution Table in comparison to the Chi-squared statistical value denoted no statistically significant difference. For Kanamycin, 162 streaks grew between the two environments and a p-value of 0.81 was calculated. With one degree of freedom, the a comparison of the Chi-squared critical value of 3.84 found from a Chi-squared Distribution Table to t he Chi-squared statistical value denoted no statistically significant difference as well. Therefore, the prediction that the garbage disposal sink would contain more antibiotic resistant bacteria than the laboratory sink was rejected. To further understand why bacteria were resistant, four tests were run to categorize the Gram identity of the environmental samples. The structure of the bacteria plays a large role in determining resistance. Importantly, it is easier for the plasmid DNA to penetrate a Gram negative bacterium due to the lack of an outer membrane around the peptidoglycan layer. The Gram staining process showed pink rod shaped bacterium, demonstrating that the bacteria was Gram negative. The KOH tests resulted in a viscous substance, indicating that all the environmental bacteria obtained from the garbage disposal and the laboratory sink were Gram negative. The MacConkey agar plates identified the bacteria to be Gram negative through growth on the plate. The growth on the plate was a pink color, signifying lactose fermentation from the bacteria. The environmental bacteria developed pink colonies on the EMB agar plates, further supporting the Gram negative identity and a low production of lactose fermen tation of the environmental bacteria gathered from the garbage disposal and laboratory sink. Gel electrophoresis was used in determining the existence and length of environmental plasmid DNA. The Miniprep isolated the plasmid DNA from the bacteria, but upon running the gel, it was discovered that no environmental plasmid DNA was present. The absence of bands